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In my opinion no. The sentence remains the same in translation to the English. In regards to reading Koine Greek generally some folk might say that a certain word order departs from the standard and is therefore "emphatic", but in my opinion this can be very subjective and runs the danger of reading things into the text never meant by the author and I don't ...


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Your analysis is correct, and the following grammar citation provides the grammatical explanation to answer your remaining questions. Please click to enlarge. Thus the "splitting" of the clause with attributives (inserted in the middle of the sentence) is normal in Greek. Such "splitting" would not be typical in English.



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