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4

The plural noun in classical Hebrew can do other "non-number" jobs than simply the plural of "majesty". One common one is the "plural of abstraction", and that is the way maḥămaddîm is typically understood here. Waltke-O'Connor para. 7.4.2(a) further refine this as refering to qualities: Cf. Joüon-Muraoka, who explain it precisely the same way: a "plural ...


4

Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"? Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:


3

"kad" followed by an active participle means "when" or "while", but not "after" or "where". So your (1) and (3) are correct, the others are not possible.


1

The point is that one cannot be simultaneously justified and sinning: 1Jn_1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth: The author is calling Luther's paradigm of simul iustus et peccator a lie and those who embrace his teaching as "out of step" with "the truth": In describing the new birth ...


1

The majority of Greek texts, as well as early Latin and Syriac translations, actually read "son of God" [υἱὸν τοῦ θεοῦ], not "son of man". The so-called "Critical Text" compiled by Nestle-Aland chose to insert a variant reading that occurs in 9 manuscripts. The Bible translation you are using probably relies on this particular text. The most authoritative ...


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The Idea in Brief The plural form (maḥămaddîm) is not literary, but is to be understood in the literal sense. That is, Jewish sages over the centuries did not understand the plural form here in any literary (or abstract) sense, but in the most literal way. In this regard, the plural suffix was in reference to sweet words (plural) that emanate from the ...



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