Hot answers tagged grammar
11
This argument is incorrect. Participles have a wide range of interpretive possibilities and sometimes choosing the correct one is difficult. Here is a resource that may help as I go along.
The argument that since βαπτίζοντες follows μαθητεύσατε it must mean that it is a later action is a grammar myth along the lines of the abused aorist.
So, it is true ...
9
This is just to add to Mike's answer, not to replace it.
Joshua does not transliterate into Greek exactly. There are letters in Hebrew that are simply not there in Greek. The Greek of Luke 3:29, Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 all have Ἰησοῦ/s for Joshua. Translators render it as Joshua instead of Jesus because that is the name readers will be familiar with. ...
9
In Hebrew the name Joshua is:
יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Yehoshua or יְהוֹשֻׁעַ Yehoshua “the LORD is salvation.”
In Greek it is the transliteration of the Hebrew:
Ιησους (Iēsous, sounds like ee-ay-soos).
Therefore in the Greek New Testament Jesus and Joshua are both Iēsous.
Up until now the names are the same and even in the Latin Vulgate they remained the same. In ...
7
Gesenius in his Hebrew Grammar (Kautzsch/Cowley edition, commonly GKC) spends several pages on "Agreement between Members of a Sentence, especially between Subject and Predicate in respect of Gender and Number." He gives many examples of when the number of the verb and the noun disagree. This is section 145 of the book. In my edition, this is page ...
7
The NET Bible textual criticism note is helpful here:
The MT has simply “and Cain said to Abel his brother,” omitting Cain’s words to Abel. It is possible that the elliptical text is original. Perhaps the author uses the technique of aposiopesis, “a sudden silence” to create tension. In the midst of the story the narrator suddenly rushes ahead to what ...
6
According to Fr. Patrick Henry Reardon1, the spelling difference is inconsequential. The spelling difference does not change the meaning and has more to do with transliteration (from Greek) than translation. The only way of distinguishing grammatical number is through diacritics, which were not added to the language until a couple centuries after the writing ...
5
I think you may be trying to read far too much into this verse that the grammar won't support. The first translation of each verse in its simplest form is really the best translation and says pretty much everything the grammar allows. The rest is reading more into the text than the grammar would support. I also think you are misunderstanding some of the ...
5
John 14:15 reads in the NA27 (and NA28):
Ἐὰν ἀγαπᾶτέ με, τὰς ἐντολὰς τὰς ἐμὰς τηρήσετε
However, there is a manuscript discrepancy that would render the last word as τηρήσατε. According to Metzger in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (2nd ed.),
A majority of the Committee preferred the future tense τηρήσετε, read
by B L Ψ 1010 1071 ...
5
Here's the problem concerning the singular/plural distinction: I found an online Peshitta forum post by Paul Younan (who prepared a scholarly Peshitta text) that mentions that there was no way to distinguish between the singular and plural in Aramaic until at least the 6th century. He states:
Notice the only difference between the two is the Syame ...
5
I know that the other answers explain this in more depth, but the simple answer is really that the early Christians read the Greek Septuagint (LXX), and this translation of the Hebrew Tanakh and apocryphal works rendered יֵשׁוּעַ / יְהוֹשֻׁעַ as Ἰησοῦς. From there it was transliterated into Latin (Iesus) and became the name associated with the Christian ...
5
The ESV offers a good essentially literal translation, rendering the verse this way:
But the Jews incited the devout women of high standing and the leading
men of the city, stirred up persecution against Paul and Barnabas, and
drove them out of their district.
Acts 13:50
Looking at the following items I found, I think that we can conclude ...
5
Simple answer, building on Ron’s longer one: The words “every man” at the end of the verse is not gender-specific, but can also be translated as “everyone”. Try this translation on for size:
They came, both men & women; all the generous of heart brought clasp, nosering, ring, and vulva-cover, all gold implements—everyone that brought an offering of ...
5
I believe the simplest explanation is that God sent Moses to be His mouthpiece, but Moses complained he couldn't do it, so God added his older brother Aaron to the equation.
The two were joined into one mouthpiece:
He shall speak for you to the people, and he shall be your mouth, and you shall be as God to him.
Using the singular verb forms, then, is ...
4
Wikipedia has a nice summary of the aorist here and more details can be found here.
This is from the first link.
In the Ancient Greek, the indicative aorist is one of the two main
forms used in telling a story; it is used for undivided events, such
as the individual steps in a continuous process (narrative aorist); it
is also used for events that ...
4
Hard Question, Soldarnal
Peter O'Brien says of this verse in his Colossians commentary:
This verse has been described as one of the most contested passages in the NT, presenting great difficulties in language and content.
And Douglas Moo, in his:
This verse furnishes the most important evidence about the false teaching, but it is also arguably the ...
3
I am not able to paste Aramaic letters on my computer (or on this site) but you can see that the Sabbath and week are not the same. An example where both words are used is Mathew 28:1. The interlinear Aramaic and English version can be found here.
http://www.peshitta.org/pdf/Mattich28.pdf
The literal Aramaic in English reads like this: “of the week the ...
2
καταλλάγητε is the 2nd plural aorist passive imperative of καταλλάσσω.
Breaking this down, 2nd plural is you (all) "y'all." Passive makes the subject of the verb the recipient of the action. Imperatives are commands and aorist imperatives generally indicate a command to start something.
So what would "we reconcile them" look like? καταλλάσoμεν αὐτοῦς.
...
2
The confusion here seems to be arising from the Greek third-person imperative. In English we do not have this construct; we are used to thinking of imperative in only second person. (Actually, my father tells me that there are more linguistically precise ways to describe what is happening here in Greek than imperative—but that becomes a matter of ...
2
The 'to reign' in this case is βασιλεύω (literally 'to be king over'), and according to the ESV Reverse Interlinear, is in the imperative case. This doesn't necessarily mean it is a command (the whole indicative / imperative thing) but it would not be a misreading to do so.
Complicating matters is that ἁμαρτία (sin) is in the nominative case, so it could ...
2
The difference in translations is based on recognition of existing textual variants.
According to the 1550 Stephanus, the Greek verb is τηρήσατε which is conjugated in the 2nd person, plural number, imperative mood. Therefore, it would be a command, not an observation (which would be the indicative mood).
According to the Nestle-Aland 27th edition, the ...
1
In Matthew 28:1 of the Aramaic translation by
Victor Alexander@v-a.com,
the translated "Sabbath" and the word translated "week",don't appear here.
21:8."And most of the people* (*21:8 Lit. Ar. idiom.:"Crowds," or "congregation.")
laid down their cloaks on the road.And others cut down branches from the trees and threw them on the road."
The translation ...
1
Cain said "Let us go out into the field", as attested by LXX:
[Septuagint Genesis] 4:8
And Cain said to Abel his brother, Let us go out into the plain; and it came to pass that when they were in the plain Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him.
I assume that "plain" is "sadeh", by the repetition of "sadeh" later. I prefer to translate ...
1
The entire verse 11 is in the imperfect mood. It seems then that we must decide if that means that:
1a) It is used to describe a single (as opposed to a repeated) action
in the past; it differs from the perfect in being more vivid and
pictorial. The perfect expresses the "fact", the imperfect adds
colour and movement by suggesting the "process" ...
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