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15

That's not feminine; that's masculine. These are "pausal forms", so when the preposition lamed plus 2 msc sg suffix would normally be lĕkā, in "pause" it is lāk -- which is the same form as the 2 fem sg, and thus the confusion. See Gesenius-Kautzsch-Cowley, Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar (2nd edn; Clarendon Press, 1910), at § 29n, p. 97 (last line of that ...


12

This argument is incorrect. Participles have a wide range of interpretive possibilities and sometimes choosing the correct one is difficult. Here is a resource that may help as I go along. The argument that since βαπτίζοντες follows μαθητεύσατε it must mean that it is a later action is a grammar myth along the lines of the abused aorist. So, it is true ...


10

Gesenius in his Hebrew Grammar (Kautzsch/Cowley edition, commonly GKC) spends several pages on "Agreement between Members of a Sentence, especially between Subject and Predicate in respect of Gender and Number." He gives many examples of when the number of the verb and the noun disagree. This is section 145 of the book. In my edition, this is page ...


10

This is just to add to Mike's answer, not to replace it. Joshua does not transliterate into Greek exactly. There are letters in Hebrew that are simply not there in Greek. The Greek of Luke 3:29, Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 all have Ἰησοῦ/s for Joshua. Translators render it as Joshua instead of Jesus because that is the name readers will be familiar with. ...


10

In Hebrew the name Joshua is: יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Yehoshua or יְהוֹשֻׁעַ Yehoshua “the LORD is salvation.” In Greek it is the transliteration of the Hebrew: Ιησους (Iēsous, sounds like ee-ay-soos). Therefore in the Greek New Testament Jesus and Joshua are both Iēsous. Up until now the names are the same and even in the Latin Vulgate they remained the same. In ...


10

In Greek, Revelation 13.8 says: ου ου γεγραπται το ονομα αυτου εν τω βιβλιω της ζωης του αρνιου του εσφαγμενου απο καταβολης κοσμου With only a little correction for English syntax, this can be partly translated as: anyone whose name is not written in the scroll of the life of the lamb the slaughtered απο καταβολης κοσμου The question here is ...


10

The translation of Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ is certainly "the revelation of Jesus Christ." The real question is whether the genitive phrase should be understood as a subjective genitive or objective genitive. Subjective genitive: "the revelation of Jesus Christ" (ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ) is understood as "what Jesus Christ reveals" (ὃ ἀποκαλύπτει ὁ Ἰησοῦς ...


10

The Tetragram in Hebrew is a proper name, and names do not have articles in Hebrew any more than they do in English. The article "the" arises in OP's KJV example because of the convention (beginning as early as the Septuagint) of representing the divine name by the word "Lord", which then has the knock on effect of requiring an article in English usage. ...


9

The verse: πρὸς ὃ δύνασθε ἀναγινώσκοντες νοῆσαι τὴν σύνεσίν μου ἐν τῷ μυστηρίῳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ. When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ.(ESV) [With reference] to which, reading, you are able to know...(my overly literal rendition) Indeed, ὃ is the object of the preposition. That’s a relative pronoun, here declined ...


8

There are a couple of different ways to answer your first question. I will attempt an answer from a linguistics perspective, specifically with regards to the lexical aspect of the verb in question. The dominant perspective on lexical aspect of verb tenses for the last few decades has been Actionsart. This deals with how the verb interacts with time. ...


8

From: B. Waltke and M. O'Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax (Eisenbrauns, 1990), § 21.2.3e, p. 361: +-------------+------+------------+------+ | Occurrences | Roots used* | | # % | # % | +----------+-------------+------+------------+------+ | Qal | 49180 | ...


7

The NET Bible textual criticism note is helpful here: The MT has simply “and Cain said to Abel his brother,” omitting Cain’s words to Abel. It is possible that the elliptical text is original. Perhaps the author uses the technique of aposiopesis, “a sudden silence” to create tension. In the midst of the story the narrator suddenly rushes ahead to what ...


7

The differences between and the new believers were prepared for eternal life (OP) and and all who were appointed for eternal life believed (NIV) are the flip-flopping of the finite verb and the participle and the translation of τεταγμένοι as “prepared” or “were appointed”. Although I understand how the OP arrived at this translation given ...


7

The Ark (Heb. אָרוֹן) was known as "the Ark of the testimony" (אֲרוֹן הָעֵדֻת cp. Exo. 25:22) and "the Ark of the covenant" (אֲרוֹן הַבְּרִית cp. Jos. 3:6) (among other things) since the two stone tablets contained therein were known as "the two tablets of the testimony" (שְׁנֵי לֻחֹת הָעֵדֻת; cp. Exo. 31:18) and "the two tablets of the covenant" (שְׁנֵי ...


7

It's probably αὐτὴν, as the modern critical editions have it. The witnesses The genitive pronoun αυτης is found (among consistently cited witnesses) only in the 4th-6th Century "correction" of Sinaiticus and the f1 group of miniscules ("Lake Group") from the 12th Century. The original (fourth C.) Sinaiticus and 𝔓64/67 omit the pronoun, a reading ...


6

Wikipedia has a nice summary of the aorist and more details can be found in the the article on the ancient Greek aorist in particular. This is from the first link. In the Ancient Greek, the indicative aorist is one of the two main forms used in telling a story; it is used for undivided events, such as the individual steps in a continuous process ...


6

I believe the simplest explanation is that God sent Moses to be His mouthpiece, but Moses complained he couldn't do it, so God added his older brother Aaron to the equation. The two were joined into one mouthpiece: He shall speak for you to the people, and he shall be your mouth, and you shall be as God to him. Using the singular verb forms, then, is ...


6

According to Fr. Patrick Henry Reardon1, the spelling difference is inconsequential. The spelling difference does not change the meaning and has more to do with transliteration (from Greek) than translation. The only way of distinguishing grammatical number is through diacritics, which were not added to the language until a couple centuries after the writing ...


6

It's a great question, and the truth is that the sentence is fairly ambiguous despite attempts to translate it otherwise (as in the ChaBaD translation brought in @crownjewel82's answer). Here's the verse - note that the closest we get to punctuation are the cantillation marks, which have a zaqef qaton (a minor disjunctive, like a comma or semicolon) at the ...


6

It's not a feminine pronoun (although it looks like one)! Lakh (לָךְ) in this case is a form of the male pronoun lekha known as "pausal," which because of its position as the final word of the verse. Pausal forms generally expand a shva or e-vowel into a qamatz; for example, at the end of Genesis 1:1 eretz becomes aretz. See for example the chart here, or ...


6

I don't think there is much to debate about what was graciously given or bestowed (ἐχαρίσθη not ἐδόθη). The οὐ μόνον ("not only") in antithesis to ἀλλὰ καὶ ("but also") seems to clearly indicate not only one thing but also another was given to the Christians. That is, it was graciously given to them by God (cp. 1 Cor. 2:12) not only (1) to believe in Christ, ...


6

Kennedy summarizes his view on p. 5, and OP's sense that the paseq is a rough equivalent to how we use [sic] strikes me as about right. Kennedy's view, however, doesn't seem like a plausible -- or at least certainly not a sufficient -- explanation of this masoretic notation. On the one hand, there are just too many instances in which no such "warning" is ...


6

I think the answer to your question is very simple: in verse 31 Jesus is referring to the disciples as a whole (ὑμᾶς, “you” plural), while in verse 32 he is addressing Simon/Peter (σύ, “thou” singular). You are aware, I trust, that in KJV the words “to have”, and the second “you” (in “to sift you as wheat”) are printed in italics, indicating that they are ...


6

It is true that the "anarthrous" usage of "Jesus" (Ἰησοῦς) in Mark 1:9 is unusual. Of 82 occurrences of the name in Mark, only eight of them lack the article (1:1, 9, 24; 5:7; 10:47[x2]; 16:6, 19). There is something of a pattern, though, as aside from 1:1, 9; and 16:19 (which is in the disputed "long ending" of Mark), these occur with an epithet, not a ...


5

I think you may be trying to read far too much into this verse that the grammar won't support. The first translation of each verse in its simplest form is really the best translation and says pretty much everything the grammar allows. The rest is reading more into the text than the grammar would support. I also think you are misunderstanding some of the ...


5

John 14:15 reads in the NA27 (and NA28): Ἐὰν ἀγαπᾶτέ με, τὰς ἐντολὰς τὰς ἐμὰς τηρήσετε However, there is a manuscript discrepancy that would render the last word as τηρήσατε. According to Metzger in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (2nd ed.), A majority of the Committee preferred the future tense τηρήσετε, read by B L Ψ 1010 1071 ...


5

καταλλάγητε is the 2nd plural aorist passive imperative of καταλλάσσω. Breaking this down, 2nd plural is you (all) "y'all." Passive makes the subject of the verb the recipient of the action. Imperatives are commands and aorist imperatives generally indicate a command to start something. So what would "we reconcile them" look like? καταλλάσoμεν αὐτοῦς. ...


5

Simple answer, building on Ron’s longer one: The words “every man” at the end of the verse is not gender-specific, but can also be translated as “everyone”. Try this translation on for size: They came, both men & women; all the generous of heart brought clasp, nosering, ring, and vulva-cover, all gold implements—everyone that brought an offering of ...


5

The ESV offers a good essentially literal translation, rendering the verse this way: But the Jews incited the devout women of high standing and the leading men of the city, stirred up persecution against Paul and Barnabas, and drove them out of their district. Acts 13:50 Looking at the following items I found, I think that we can conclude ...



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