Tag Info

New answers tagged

2

The most that can be said -- from the perspective of a non-scholar, as I am, who can only study the scholars -- is that a number of competent scholars make a case for translations that differ from Holmstedt's. As to some of the discussion from those who have written above: The idea of a "period" of creation is implied in the context for any translator. The ...


5

Onan's sin was entirely related to his refusal to perform his levirate duty. Quickly about the other three: Coitus interruptus is not masturbation. It is a (very unreliable) method of birth control. Onan was attempting not to get Tamar pregnant because he did not want to provide an heir for his deceased older brother. It was not "theft of Tamar's child." ...


3

The answer to your question is best examined by looking at Onan's sin in the context of the exchange between Judah and Tamar and requires a good understanding and background of the place of women in ancient middle eastern culture and the purpose of Leverite marriage practices. We must remember that this culture had no medicare and no social security. ...


-3

God must have revealed it to him in some way . Maybe one of Abram's servants revealed it to Pharaoh. I guess it's not important how he knew or God would have told us in the word.


0

I addressed this in detail here. https://www.academia.edu/8505148/Assessing_the_Reliability_of_the_Masoretic_Text_for_Use_in_Dating_Creation_and_the_Flood_An_Examination_of_the_Internal_Evidence_for_Textual_Transmission_of_the_Antediluvian_Chronogenealogy


6

There are a number of indicators: Themes In the texts in Chapter 11 and earlier, all of the stories are about God's punishment of mankind. While the theme of salvation is present in these texts, there is also a theme of the depravity of mankind and their continual fall from grace. This theme isn't really present in the texts after Chapter 11 - only the ...


0

The First Separation: separation from his homeland and relatives, separation from Terah (Gen 12:1; Acts 7:2-4) Ur of the Chaldeans was the place where Abraham's ancestors had lived and worshiped idols (Josh 24:2, 15). His departure from this land represents the first step in faith for Christians: separation from the world. Ur of the Chaldeans was a fertile ...


-2

Here is a thought, consider that if the creation story was told from the perspective of a man on the face of the earth during the creation. The earth being covered by clouds of gas and perhaps dust could be indeed, dark and void. Plants as seed do not need light, but many plants need light to germinate. The pronouncement"let there be light" could be ...


1

There are others who support the idea that this verse has grammatical issues as Holmstedt has indicated, for example, http://www.jtsa.edu/Conservative_Judaism/JTS_Torah_Commentary/Breishit_5770.xml but Harris concludes that "in the beginning" is a reasonable interpretation and here: ...


1

I suggest it is more useful to look at the context of the name changes rather than the coincidence of spelling changes. A great many of the names of people we find in the Book of Genesis have meanings quite relevant to the story of the persons concerned. As stated, Abram means 'High Father', or perhaps better, 'Exalted Father', while Abraham means 'Father of ...


4

No. Only Reuven slept with Bilhah. When it says "בְּנֵ֥י בִלְהָֽה" ("[these are the] sons of Bilhah"), it is not referring only to the four sons of Naftali mentioned in verse 13, but to all of the descendants of Bilhah mentioned, from verse 1 to verse 13. This is parallel to the verses in Genesis 46:23-25: וּבְנֵי־דָ֖ן חֻשִֽׁים׃ וּבְנֵ֖י נַפְתָּלִ֑י ...


6

It cannot be deduced that Naphtali had sex with Bilhah by the Biblical texts. 1 Chronicles 7:13 is not saying that Naphtali had his children with Bilhah. Bilhah is mentioned in 1 Chronicles 7:13 because Naphtali was her second son by Jacob, according to Genesis 30:1-8. Naphtali's sons can be rightly called her sons as well. In fact, some translations render ...


-1

Short Answer: To be made "in God's image, according to His likeness" was just the author's (now outdated) way of saying that God made man to be His son -- that is, to look like Him in character and in deed. Exhibit A: Genesis 5 The most straightforward way of showing this is to read the opening verses of Genesis 5. In the day when God created man, He ...


-2

It is a misreading of Genesis 1:26-27 to understand it to say that Eve was fashioned in the image of God or that the image of God is in the combination of male and female. Certainly Paul did not think that was the correct reading (1 Cor 11). Correctly read it says that men were made in the image and likeness of God. Women were an afterthought and were made ...


-2

I agree with GalacticCowboy. It is also physical appearance. God is a Spirit, so how is man, God image? An "Image" is a representation of the external form of a person or thing, and that representation, Man/Adam is the image He (God) came in, (flesh), which is a physical appearance. Supportive scripture: 1 Corinthians 15:45-7: And so it is written, The ...


0

The Bible tell us the answer in the scripture, He (God) "APPEARED", not manifested Himself. Big difference. An appearance is not the same as a manifestation. An appearances is second person, meaning through, of, by someone, or something else. As an example, or case here in point, an angel. Just as He did Moses on the Mountain. He spoke through an angel, in ...


0

I agree with David's answer, but would like to add some more information. Yes, "This is not the "same word repeated and used in different way". As a matter of fact, both are not words at all, but two letters. And those letters are the "FIRST", and the "LAST". For as the answer states, it is found in Genesis 1:1, it is the "Aleph" and the "Tav". That is, ...


1

Sexual Sin According to Jubilees, Er sinned by refusing to sleep with Tamar: (1) And in the forty-fifth jubilee, in the second week, (and) in the second year, Judah took for his first-born Er, a wife from the daughters of Aram, named Tamar. (2) But he hated, and did not lie with her, because his mother was of the daughters of Canaan, and he wished to ...


0

To answer your first question I would point out that there is no linguistic evidence for a concept of "spirit" prior to the 17th century. The following languages all had one word which in modern English is split into two: Biblical Hebrew Biblical Greek Latin With the advent of material dualism the word "spirit" was coined in English from the Latin word ...



Top 50 recent answers are included