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20

No, it isn't an accurate translation. At a number of points it strains or simply falsifies the meaning of the Hebrew text. I'll take it phrase by phrase, but first, here's a key for the layout I'll use -- I hope it's clear. MT: The Masoretic text (Hebrew) Translit.: and its transliteration LXX: the Septuagint (ancient Greek translation) Translit.: and its ...


12

I will show three things: 1) The law has no retroactive force: a man is not condemned for breaking a law which did not exist until later. 2) Moses did not break the law you quote. 3) God did not defend Moses' marriage, but his person. 1) THE LAW HAS NO RETROACTIVE FORCE Abraham married his half-sister. Lev 20:17 ‘If a man takes his sister, his ...


11

Whether it's an accurate interpretation of the verse is something I'm not qualified to answer. But the article claims it to be a "literal" translation, and that appears quite obviously false. Translations No major Bible translation looks at it that way: Young's Literal Translation: "The habiliments of a man are not on a woman, nor doth a man put on ...


5

The "Passover offering" (פֶּסַח) of Deu. 16:2 is commonly understood in Jewish commentaries as the Passover chagiga (חגיגה) offering rather than the unique Passover offering that occurred on the evening of Nisan 14.(1) Notice the differences. In Exo. 12:3, the Israelites were commanded to take a שֶׂה for the Passover offering. A שֶׂה is a flock animal, ...


5

Exodus 12:8-9 mandates that the passover sacrifice be roasted with fire (צְלִי־אֵ֔שׁ), and prohibits its consumption when raw or when boiled in water (נָ֔א וּבָשֵׁ֥ל מְבֻשָּׁ֖ל בַּמָּ֑יִם). In contrast, Deuteronomy 16:7 uses the same verb (בֹשׁל) to describe the mandated preparation method. The definitions given in HALOT for בֹשׁל (also בָּשֵׁל) for each ...


5

Exodus 12:9 and Deut 16:7 appear in contradiction, because the former indicates there shall not be any boiling of the Passover (but only the roasting), and the latter passage states the opposite, which is the boiling (since the Hebrew verb בָּשַׁל means to boil, or to cook). In the Pentateuch, the Hebrew verb בָּשַׁל in the Piel stem also occurs in the ...


5

My answer here will borrow from an essay by Michael Heiser (who I see left a comment on the page you linked to): Variants in Deuteronomy 32.8-9 Sons of Israel The Masoretic Text (MT) says בני ישראל, 'sons of Israel' 'Several later revisions' of the Septuagint (LXX) say sons of Israel Angels of God 'Most witnesses' of the LXX say αγγελων θεου, ...


5

I wanted to clear up the ambiguities the other answers have left around. Moses is reviewing the laws that were originally given in Exodus and Leviticus. This law is originally found in Exodus 22:16-17 (NKJV): If a man entices a virgin who is not betrothed, and lies with her, he shall surely pay the bride-price for her to be his wife. If her father ...


4

Prelims. Just for comparison, the three synoptic texts from UBS4: Mt 22:37 ὁ δὲ ἔφη αὐτῷ, Ἀγαπήσεις κύριον τὸν θεόν σου ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ καρδίᾳ σου καὶ ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ ψυχῇ σου καὶ ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ διανοίᾳ σου· Mk 12:30 καὶ ἀγαπήσεις κύριον τὸν θεόν σου ἐξ ὅλης τῆς καρδίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ψυχῆς σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς διανοίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ἰσχύος σου. Lk 10:27 ... ...


3

As to #1 - Different Quantity of Objects No reconciliation needed across the gospels, because if it is true that Christ said four things, he also said three things. There is no untruth in noting the lesser amount, just a shift in emphasis. Now as far as reconciling four things in the Greek with the three things of the Hebrew text, the Hebrew word לֵבָב ...


2

From Adam Clarke's commentary, *Most commentators are of opinion that Ezra was the author of the last chapter of Deuteronomy; some think it was Joshua, and others the seventy elders, immediately after the death of Moses; adding, that the book of Deuteronomy originally ended with the prophetic blessing upon the twelve tribes: 'Happy art thou, O ...


1

The tense of Deuteronomy 30:11-14 is open to debate but is usually taken as the narrative present, with some debating that it could or should be read as future oriented. However, it is drawing a long straw to say that anything written in the future tense is a prophecy, or that a reasonable person would expect it to be a prophecy. Imperative statements are ...


1

Genocide as word was not coined until 1944. But there is certainly evidence of God commanding the annihilation of an entire people, namely, the Canaanites. The Canaanites against whom Israel waged war were under judicial sentence of death by God. They were spiritually and morally degenerate. Virtually every kind of perversion was a religious act: and large ...


1

I am not certain if you mean "Genocide, as in Ethnic Cleansing," or "Genocide, as in Large Scale Slaughter." 1 Samuel 15: Then Samuel said to Saul, “The Lord sent me to anoint you as king over His people, over Israel; now therefore, listen to the words of the Lord. 2 Thus says the Lord of hosts, ‘I will punish Amalek for what he did to Israel, how he set ...


1

And the Lord shall become King over all the earth; on that day shall the Lord be one, and His name one.(Zech. 14:9) Rashi's commentary reads, *"shall the Lord be one: For all the nations shall abandon their vanities and acknowledge Him, that He is one, and [that] no strange deity is with Him,and His name one: That His name shall be mentioned ...


1

Deuteronomy 6:7: and you must inculcate them in your sons and speak of them when you sit in your house and when you walk on the road and when you lie down and when you get up. Essentially God commanded his people to teach their children his ways. Deuteronomy 31:12, which says: ‘Congregate the people, the men and the women and the little ones..., in ...


1

The classic Jewish commentator Rashi says [Scripture] is speaking of [someone who causes harm to his fellow Jew through] slander quoting Pirkei d’Rabbi Eliezer 53.


1

"In any dispute between the Hebrew text and the Greek translation, I would favor the Hebrew, it being closer to the source." Not always. Just because the Masoretic text is the majority and is written in hebrew does not mean that it trumps other texts. The internal evidence supports the ending of Deut 32:8 to read as "sons of god." Ps 82 does not make sense ...


1

What is meant by being brought "back in ships to Egypt"? Did this happen historically? I find no reason from the text in question to assume that the Lord's threat to "send you (national Israel) back to Egypt in ships" is anything but literal. I take it to mean specifically the nation as a whole because the entire address regarding the Blessings and the ...



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