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Another answer gave evidence in support of the idea that this passage refers to demonic powers and echoes (or rather, anticipates) gnostic ideas. Clearly this is one widely held scholarly viewpoint. I would like to point out, however, that this is not the only available, defensible interpretation. I have bolded here the references given by the OP to other NT ...


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Mark 1:34 explains this … and He did not allow the demons to speak, because they knew Him. Jesus did not need or want the testimony of demons. I wouldn't either. He would have enough of the Pharisees accusing him of being in league with the devil in a short while. The reason given is that the demons "knew him". This is not a testimony of faith or ...


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Definition of Unclean Spirit The phrase τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἀκάθαρτον ("unclean spirit") and its various declensions occur in twenty-three verses (23) in the Textus Receptus.1 However, none of those scriptures explicitly describe what an "unclean spirit" is. Thankfully, Luke gives us more insight in his gospel. In Luke 4:33, it is written, And in the ...


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Earl Doherty says, in The Jesus Puzzle, there has not been a universal scholarly consensus on what Paul has in mind when referring to 'rulers' (archons) in 1 Corinthians 2:8, but that over the last century a majority of commentators, some reluctantly, have decided that he is referring to the demon spirits. He cites Paul Ellingworth, S. G. F. Brandon, C. K. ...


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Plural form of ἄρχων refers to angelic beings in both Daniel LXX-OG & Theodotion. Concerning 1Cor 2:6,8 rulers τῶν ἀρχόντων Gordon Fee[1] “the plural form does not refer to demonic forces of any kind in any Jewish or Christian writings prior to the second century.” G. Fee draws a unnecessary semantic boundary between the singular and plural form ...



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