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Another perspective on this issue: why should Paul have counselled "love" in each of the three cases of domestic relationship in Colossians 3:18-20 (wives to husbands, husbands to wives, children to parents)? The question assumes that this disposition -- certainly a norm in modern western nuclear families -- is also the default social configuration in ...


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Marriage isn't 50-50. It's both parties giving 100%. Dr. Emerson Eggerichs addresses the differences in the commands extensively in his book Love and Respect and on his website, most recently in a September 4 blogpost. This verse doesn't mean that women don't have to love and men don't have to be subject to their wives. Paul was giving instructions about ...


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It seems unlikely. The Greek of Colossians 1:17b (SBL) καὶ τὰ πάντα ἐν αὐτῷ συνέστηκεν The Greek of Sirach 43:26b1 (Rahlfs) καὶ ἐν λόγῳ αὐτοῦ σύγκειται τὰ πάντα. The KJV that you quote indicates a possible connection between the verses primarily because of the word consist.2,3 However, you can see here that the bolded words are different (in ...



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