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Probably Not, since v.11 is only a Specific Example of the Universal Your questions are (as they stand at this writing): So my question is, are there any modern scholars/theologians/commentators who dare publicly take that position? Are there any citations anyone knows of in which anyway has the spine to take this more obviously contextual ...


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In John 6:37, it is written, Πᾶν ὃ δίδωσίν μοι ὁ πατὴρ πρὸς ἐμὲ ἥξει καὶ τὸν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς με οὐ μὴ ἐκβάλω ἔξω Everyone whom the Father gives me, he will come to me, and I will certainly not cast out him who comes to me. Thus, we see that those who come to Jesus and are henceforth not cast out are those whom the Father gives him. In John 6:39, ...


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Piggybacking on ScottS, v11 is simply an application v10. Most of the major Calvinist preachers/teachers I am aware of do not shy away from v11 as much as they simply cut to the "heart" of it in v10. The entire book of Isaiah shows God's undisputed sovereignty over Israel's fate. Yes, v11 absolutely is a fulfillment of Deut 28's promises. However, read ...



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