Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

14

The first two reasons are easy to understand with Balaam being a pagan prophet. After all his encounters with God and the angel threatening to kill him, Balaam doesn't dare do anything except speak the words YHWH gave him. As a polytheist, he will sacrifice to any deity which helps him. Most likely, he is a henotheist (in the geographic sense) and ...


5

The medieval scholar Maimonides (Rabbi Moses ben Maimon) reads this as God allowing Bilaam to exercise his free will. He cites an earlier source, Numbers Rabbah 20:12, which says (Soncino translation): IF THE MEN ARE COME TO CALL THEE, RISE UP, AND GO WITH THEM (XXII, 20). From this you can infer that a man is led in the way he desires to go. For at ...


3

Some classical Jewish commentaries describe Balaam as a worshiper of Gᴏᴅ, but in a pagan manner: rather than submitting himself to Gᴏᴅ’s will, he believed he could compel or bribe Gᴏᴅ to follow his wishes through sacrifices & sorcery. (Note that Jewish tradition does not see sorcery as inherently evil or forbidden to non-Jews.) In the Midrash, the ...


2

Rom 1.18 ff tells us that God gives us what we want and permits us to wallow in the consequences when we choose against his will. God makes his will clear. Balaam wishes to go anyway. God stops him to remind him that his choice opposes God. When Balaam feigns a repentance, God permits him to go to teach him although Balaam thinks that he is in charge of ...


2

The Masoretic translation makes the verse easier to understand: 'None have beheld iniquity in Jacob, Neither hath one seen perverseness in Israel' 'perverseness' can alternatively be translated as 'calamity' - so Rabbi Hertz Then we read: Because there are no gross-injustice (iniquity) in Israel God remains on their side and visit no calamities on them. ...


1

Explanation Number 1: God did not perceive iniquity that is "in Jacob" (people of Israel), for when they violate His words, He is not meticulous with them to meditate upon their falsity and their perversity in that they violate His law. Explanation Number 2: "he" in that verse referes to Balaam. Balaam did not perceive any practice of idolatry or robbery ...


1

One explanation is that God isn't speaking according to the strict letter of the law. The verse is saying that "He doesn't [want to] see evil in Israel". He looks to ignore it, as it were. This explanation is proffered by the Rashbam, Rashi and Onkelos, who explain that the latter clause of the verse ותרועת מלך בו stems from the word friendship/companionship ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible