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9

While reading links to add to this question, I ran across Gesenius’ explanation (§129 c.), which seems to be too much of an answer to incorporate into the question. I therefore offer it as an answer, although I have a sense that it’s up for disputing, and I’d love to see other answers incorporating more recent scholarship. Gesenius labels this lamed ...


6

James 1:1 In James 1:1 we read: James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greetings. (Jam 1:1 NKJ) This introductory greeting informs the readers that the writer is called 'James' and he considers himself to be a slave of both God and the Lord Jesus Christ. In itself, this greeting ...


4

Psalm 90 is unique in that it is the only psalm that has a superscription that identifies it as having been written by Moses. Mark S. Smith says in 'Taking Inspiration', published in Psalms and Practice (edited by Stephen Breck Reid), page 245, that the scholarly consensus is that the superscriptions we see on many of the psalms are prose additions to the ...


3

The answer is no, because there is no real evidence that King David wrote any of the psalms attributed to him. James Luther Mays says in Psalms, page 9, that the personal identities of the authors of the Psalms are unknown. He says the quest for the origin of individual psalms leads to occasions in Israel's public exercise of religion, not to their authors. ...


1

Eusebius, writing in the fourth century, referred to Papias as having written about Matthew as an author of what may be the Gospel that now bears the name of Matthew: Church History 3:39:16: But concerning Matthew he writes as follows: “So then Matthew wrote the oracles in the Hebrew language, and every one interpreted them as he was able. Assuming ...


1

I believe the scholarly view is still mainstream among critical scholars - see Wikipedia. However, some scholars could potentially be led by to this conclusion by any preconceptions they have, including that multiple authorship solves the problem of Isaiah being able to predict the future, just as a reverse of this is a potential preconception among ...


1

This is only a partial answer against the idea that the author inserted the 'we' references to give a false sense of closeness to the action. There are five passages which are written in the first person: 16:10-17, 20:5-15, 21:1-18, 27:1-29, 28:1-16. Of these, 16:10-12, 20:5-6, 20:13-16, 21:1-8, 21:15-16, 27:1-29, 28:11-16 are travel narratives, not ...


1

R. N. Whybray says in 'The social world of the wisdom writers', published in The World of Ancient Israel (edited by R. E. Clements), page 242, that Ecclesiastes is one of the latest, if nor the latest, of the books of the Old Testament, as indicated above all by the language in which it is written, which, though unique in various ways, has close affinities ...


1

Although my initial reaction to this question was (not unlike the response in another answer here) that obviously this day-of-the-week superscription (DWS) reflects the Jewish liturgical background of the translator, this conclusion depends on several assumptions: The phrase "τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων" is original to the Old Greek translation of the Psalms ...


1

The question: What does the inclusion of τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων in the LXX of Psa. 24:1 demonstrate about the religious identity of the translator(s) of Psa. 24:1 into the LXX? Forgive me if I'm oversimplifying, but doesn't the inclusion (or addition) of a phrase from the Hebrew Talmud logically suggest a Jewish religious identity? I don't see how it could ...



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