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12

Was "Τετέλεσται" stamped across documents? Maybe. But I wouldn't think about translating this as "Paid in Full". Support for this phrase I have yet to find any true support for this phrase being used on tax documents. The closes I could come was from The Greek-English lexicon by Moulton and Milligan, which says: “Receipts are often introduced by the ...


6

τὸν μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν....1 "For he caused him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us...." The preceding vv. 18-20 make it clear that 'he' is θεός (God), and 'him who knew nothing of sin' in this context is Χριστός (Christ). The presence of the article (τὸν) with the participle γνόντα indicates that it functions as a ...


6

Job lived 140 years (Job 42:16), a long life, similar to the patriarchs. For that reason it is said that he lived during the period of the patriarchs. During the patriarchal age, the head of the family also covered the function of offering sacrifices. In other words, he was the priest of his family. (1) So Job, conceived by the writer as living in ...


5

ἀπόλουσαι is a second person singular aorist middle imperative (2S AMI) from ἀπολούω meaning "to wash away from oneself." It can not be derived either from ἀπολύω (2S AMI = ἀπολύσαι; "depart"1 ) or ἀπόλλυμι (2S AMI = ἀπόλου; "perish"). In addition to the morphologic discrepancies, the middle forms of both ἀπολύω and ἀπόλλυμι are intransitive verbs, meaning ...


3

The Greek word ἁμαρτίαν (hamartian) is the accusative case, singular number declension of the noun ἁμαρτία (hamartia), a feminine gender noun. It occurs 174 times in the King James Version wherein it is translated as follows (according to blueletterbible.org): sin (172x) sinful (1x) offense (1x) In Heb. 10:6, it is actually translated as "sacrifices for ...


3

The Hebrew text וְעִנִּיתֶם אֶת נַפְשֹׁתֵיכֶם (alternatively תְּעַנּוּ אֶת נַפְשֹׁתֵיכֶם) literally says "and ye shall afflict your souls," and it appears in two separate sections in Leviticus as well as once in Numbers. This text has always been understood to mean afflict your body through fasting. That being said, there is also a spiritual component to ...


2

As defined by Wikipedia, Atonement (in the Christian sense) refers to the forgiving or pardoning of sin in general and original sin in particular through the death and resurrection of Jesus, enabling the reconciliation between God and his creation. This concept of atonement is at the heart of modern Christian theology. Both GThomas and the hypothetical 'Q' ...


1

Koulaki Megalo Etymologiko Liddell & Scott, Greek-English Lexicon ὑπό C.WITH ACCUS. II.of subjection, ποιεῖσθαι ὑπὸ σφᾶς id=Thuc., etc. Georg Autenrieth's Homeric Lexicon μένω c. c. acc. & inf., wait “οὐκ ἔμειν᾽ ἐλθεῖν τράπεζαν νυμφίαν” P. 3.16 The word ὑπέμεινεν in the context implies "waiting patiently", or "submitted unto", or "resolved ...


1

Your first question seems to be "should it be translated sin or a sin offering"? I'm inclined to think "sin offering". Your question seems to be "was it a literal substitution or not?" The answer to that question is "not". "Substitution" (as in "strict substitution") is one of the several incorrect "theories of the atonement". The verse in question begins ...



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