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27

Palestine at the time of Jesus was something of a crossroads for culture and language. It's entirely possible a young man growing up in the region would have been exposed to at least four different languages: Greek, Aramaic, Latin, and Hebrew. Aramaic Far and away the most common language that Jesus is quoted in is Greek. But that seems largely due to the ...


17

My impression is that Aramaic primacy is not taken very seriously among experts, so there's not much in the way of scholarly works debunking it. (This is not unusual, compare to say mythicism or the theory that Jesus and Mary Magdaline were married, neither of which had scholarly debunkings until recently.) So rather than citing experts, I'm just going to ...


17

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


14

The Hebrew phrase in Psalms 118:25 from which the Greek Hosanna (ὡσαννά) derives is actually two words: הוֹשִׁ֨יעָ֥ה נָּ֑א (hoshi'ah na): הוֹשִׁ֨יעָ֥ה (hôšîâ) is Hiphil imperative masculine singular fromישׁע` (ysh'), which means to help, save, rescue. נָּ֑א (na) is a particle which indicates urgency or sincerity, and takes different meanings based on ...


10

Noah has given an excellent answer, but I would like to give other issues with Aramaic primacy. There are NT fragments in Greek that are older than anything in Aramaic. Very early fragments. The John Rylands fragment of John's Gospel, P52 (AD ~125), is older by centuries than any copy of the Peshitta that has survived, and even older than the work in the ...


10

Not an expert, but I did have this link sent to me once: Abba Isn't Daddy Each of the three occurrences of αββα in the NT is followed by the Greek translation ο πατερ, "the father." This translation makes clear its meaning to the writers; the form is a literal translation -- "father" plus a definite article -- and like abba can also be a ...


10

During the Intertestamental period, Judas the Maccabee (the Hammer) led a major revolt in Israel. This is the Hasmonean revolt (beginning in 167 BC). After Judah and the other Hasmoneans led the people to victory in a major battle, the people had a celebration. They cut off palm branches, waved them in the air, and shouted "Hosanna!" Judah was killed in ...


9

The two languages are related (both are Northwest Semtic languages) and eventually shared a script. Hebrew, prior to the exile used its own script called Paleo-Hebrew. It was still used afterwards in isolated places and instances, but what we now call Aramaic Square replaced it for the most part. Though they share many common words and large pieces of ...


9

The Didache includes Maranatha in its prescribed post-Eucharistic prayer: Didache 10.6 (Schaff) 'Let grace come, and let this world pass away. Hosanna to the God of David. If any one is holy let him come, if any one is not holy let him repent. Maranatha. Amen.' This is a clearly eschatological context. The epilogue of the Revelation actually says ...


8

According to the NET translators' notes, Scholars debate the appropriateness of this verse to this context. Many see it as a gloss added by a postexilic scribe which was later incorporated into the text. Both R. E. Clendenen (“Discourse Strategies in Jeremiah 10, ” JBL 106 [1987]: 401-8) and W. L. Holladay (Jeremiah [Hermeneia], 1:324–25, 334–35) ...


8

These variations in the divine name are not so much about different languages, but different phases of Hebrew. See the YHWH article by Freedman, O'Connor & Ringgren in Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, (Eerdmans, 1986), vol. 5, pp. 500-521. The "contracted" forms are usually used in theophoric names: at the beginning: yəhô- as in ...


7

The Wikipedia article Hosanna makes a reference to the Bauer Lexicon, explaining the etymology of the Greek word ὡσαννά: derived from Aramaic (הושע נא) from Hebrew (הושיעה נא) (Psalm 118:25, הוֹשִׁיעָהנָּא), meaning "help" or "save, I pray", "an appeal that became a liturgical formula; as part of the Hallel... familiar to everyone in Israel." So by the ...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical ...


6

Yes, it is available online at the Hebrew Union College's Jewish Institute of Religion in their Comprehensive Aramaic Project. Just click on "Search the CAL textual databases" in the left column. Then go to "Targum Studies Module," then "Browse a Single Targum," and you will see Targum Neofiti. Note that every word is tagged so you can click on it for a ...


6

Below are a few different entries for the Greek word ὡσαννά (copied from BibleWorks 8): Friberg Lexicon 29106 ὡσαννά a particle transliterated from the Aramaic; strictly, a cry expressing an appeal for divine help save! help, we pray! in a liturgical usage, a shout of praise and worship hosanna, we praise you (MT 21.9) Louw-Nida Lexicon 33.364 ...


6

The oldest and most studied claim of this sort is that there was an Aramaic gospel which served as a source for the synoptics. In particular, many early church fathers believed that the original version of Matthew was written in Aramaic based in part on the writings of Papias who said: "For Matthew composed the logia [sayings] in Hebrew style; but each ...


6

In Mt 6:13 the Syriac translation of the Bible (Pšīttā) has bīšā (ܒܝܫܐ), which is masculine gender, determinate state, singular of the adjective “bad, evil”, so the most literal translation would be “the evil one”. The abstract noun “evil, badness” is bīšūṯā (ܒܝܫܘܬܐ), or you can use the feminine determinate singular of the adjective, namely bīštā (ܒܝܫܬܐ) ...


6

According to Fr. Patrick Henry Reardon1, the spelling difference is inconsequential. The spelling difference does not change the meaning and has more to do with transliteration (from Greek) than translation. The only way of distinguishing grammatical number is through diacritics, which were not added to the language until a couple centuries after the writing ...


6

Tg. Ps. J stands for Targum of Pseudo Jonathan. It is a Targum of the western tradition, a translation of the Pentateuch. It is called Pseudo Jonathan because for years it was thought to be the work of Jonathan b. Uzziel. Most scholars conclude this is due to a printer's error. According to this opinion, the work was originally known as Targum Jerushalmi ...


5

As you've pointed out, Gehenna (γέεννα) is just a transliteration of the Hebrew for "Valley of Hinnom" (גֵּי הִנֹּם) and the Aramaic for the same (גֵיהִנָּם / ܓܗܢܐ). The NET translators point out, This was the valley along the south side of Jerusalem. In OT times it was used for human sacrifices to the pagan god Molech (cf. Jer 7:31; 19:5–6; 32:35), ...


5

The scanned manuscript itself is online at the Vatican Digital Library (Biblioteca Apostolica Vaticana).


5

I presume that this in reference to its use in the New Testament. In the Old Testament, it means "father". It's pretty much the only translation for it. Use in Greek text From Vines Abba is an Aramaic word, found in Mar 14:36; Rom 8:15 and Gal 4:6. In the Gemara (a Rabbinical commentary on the Mishna, the traditional teaching of the Jews) it is ...


5

Check out James R. Edwards' book, The Hebrew Gospel and the Development of the Synoptic Tradition. From my review in the Stone-Campbell Journal, 14:2 Fall, 2011: This volume presents an older idea concerning the formation of the Synoptic Gospels, while connecting the data in a new way. The current volume resurrects an older idea concerning the formation ...


5

Daniel 7:27 reads: ומלכותה ושלטנא ורבותא די מלכות תחות כל־שמיא יהיבת לעם קדישי עליונין מלכותה מלכות עלם וכל שלטניא לה יפלחון וישתמעון׃ First of all, this is not Hebrew but Aramaic. The third word from the end (in bold) is l-eh, with the suffix for the third person singular masculine. It could mean “to him” (that is: to the most high one), but since the ...


4

Dr. Sebastian P. Brock, who retired from teaching at Oxford University, has demonstrated that the Peshitta New Testament was translated from the Greek into Syriac. The name of Jesus in the Syriac Peshitta text is ܝܫܘܥ (Jesu). This is how it is rendered in Matthew 1:21. However, the name 'Joshua' is not consistently rendered in this way in Syriac, presumably ...


4

Here's the problem concerning the singular/plural distinction: I found an online Peshitta forum post by Paul Younan (who prepared a scholarly Peshitta text) that mentions that there was no way to distinguish between the singular and plural in Aramaic until at least the 6th century. He states: Notice the only difference between the two is the Syame ...


4

They are both west Semitic and have a very obvious shared root language. They also use the same script. However, there are a handful of differences in the way they developed. For instance, the long 'a' was retained in Aramaic but changed to a long 'o' in Hebrew in some words. Also, where we see a tav in Aramaic, there is often a shin in Hebrew. This is ...


4

This, from the New Bible Commentary, 2nd Edition (1954), on Mark 14:36: "Abba (36) is Aramaic for 'Father.' The addition of Pater (Father) is probably not a translation by Mark. Some think the two words together are a very early liturgical formula of address in prayer. But it is more likely that they reflect a natural prayer habit of Jesus Himself, which ...


4

Good question! The Greek ending -σμοσ makes a noun out of a verb. The verb "σαββατιζο", as used by Plutarch and Justin Martyr about keeping the sabbath, therefore becomes "the result of keeping the sabbath". In a similar way, "inflate", the act of increasing the size of something, becomes "inflation", the result of increasing the size of something. It ...


3

Hermeneutics is not only about the deductive approach to interpreting Scripture (for example, grammar and syntax) but also the inductive approach, which is to infer the generalization from several pieces of information -- sort of connecting the dots. In other words, hermeneutics is both an art (subjective) and science (objective). The concept of the Sabbath ...



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