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6

The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...


5

Because of an edit made in your post, it is important to note that money itself is not being called the root of all evils (nor all sorts of evils) in this passage, it is the love of money that is problematic, as the edit to the question has clarified. With that said, 1 Timothy 6:10 is a difficult text to translate. A literal translation of the text would ...


5

Is that because the original texts are indented too or something, so that it looks like a poem? No. The old manuscripts (at least as far as I am aware) do not indent poetry. However, since there are so many, I would advise looking up one of the projects that is digitizing the manuscripts so you can see them for yourself. Edit: you can view a number of ...


4

Homosexuality is an invention of the 19th century. Before then, people had words for specific sexual acts (sodomy etc.), but they did not have the concept of any inherent or acquired “sexual orientation”. This concept originated in modern psycho-pathology. To translate ἀρσενοκοίτης as “homosexual”, as some modern Bible translations do, is an anachronism, if ...


4

The classical Greek word ἀρρενοκοίτης (or ἀρσενοκοίτης in Koine Greek) means "sodomy" according to its usage in antiquity (please click here, and note its use and translation in paragraph 686, line 5, where the direct reference are to those Arabs who lie with other men for sexual intercourse). So there is no ambiguity of the use of this word in 1 Cor 6:9-10 ...


4

I can't speak to poetry in the NT, as I am not familiar with the distinctives of Greek poetry. But I would like to expand on @malachi1990's excellent answer by mentioning some of the characteristics that set Hebrew poetry apart from prose. English poetic text can often be identified by two primary linguistic characteristics: rhyme and rythm (or metre). The ...


4

One early lesson in Classical Greek class is that neuter plural nouns in Greek function as a "collective" in the singular, and therefore can take verbs and their forms in the singular. The Greek word in question in 1 Tim 3:4 is τέκνa, which is neuter plural. REFERENCE: Smyth, Herbert Weir (1918). Greek Grammar. Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 264.


3

The Greek text of 1 Tim. 2:1 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): Παρακαλῶ οὖν πρῶτον πάντων ποιεῖσθαι δεήσεις προσευχάς ἐντεύξεις εὐχαριστίας ὑπὲρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων The Greek words in question are (in the order in which they occur): δεήσεις (lemma: δέησις) προσευχάς (lemma: προσευχή) ἐντεύξεις (lemma: ἔντευξις) εὐχαριστίας (lemma: ...


2

The author(s) of the pastoral letters only provides a few details about his opponents, including: They believe 'myths', 'irreverent, silly myths', and 'Jewish myths' (1 Timothy 1.4; 4.7; Second Timothy 4.4; Titus 1.14) They speculate and have vain discussions (1 Timothy 1.4,6) They desire to be teachers of the law/Torah (1 Timothy 1.7) They forbid marriage ...


2

The Idea in Brief The New Testament is explicit that women do not hold the "office" of teaching (or pastoring), but they may nonetheless have the "gift" of teaching. In the case of the "office" of deacon, there is no explicit expectation or reference that such people need teach the Word of God (as is otherwise the case with the overseer in the same ...


2

In Rom 1:8-10, Paul's blessing refers to the strong faith of the Romans; in 1 Cor 1:4-6 likewise, as Paul thanks God for their faith; 2 Cor 1:2-7 differs only in that the blessing is in the form of words of comfort; 1 Thess 2-4 is again gives thanks for their faith. Compare this to Galatians, where Paul wishes the Galatians well (Gal 1:2) but omits the ...


2

Although there are differing views on what follows, the most convincing explanation I've heard regarding this reference centres around the nature of the culture Timothy was contending with at Ephesus. For many years, Ephesus had been an entrenched and powerful centre of the cult of Ephesian Artemis - her temple was one of the seven ancient wonders of the ...


1

I don't think a "concrete," "certain," answer can be given ... However, perhaps there is a plausible explanation given the period, and given cultures at work: Titus, Timothy, Galatians, had notable issues regarding Gentile Christians and the controversy of Pharasaic/Rabbinic doctrines and traditions being taught in the Churches. In view of this, it ...


1

You might be interested to know that 1 Tim 1:7 says “teachers of the law” (νομοδιδασκαλοι). The translation “Torah” is one of those “interpretative” renderings which mar most of the modern Bible translations. νομοs is the very ordinary Greek word for “law” in all periods.


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In wide brush strokes, the Christian New Testament depicts two extremes of errant believers. On the one hand, the errant proselytes of Paul tended toward antinomianism, since their background was Gentile and therefore secular; and, conversely, the errant proselytes of Peter (plus James and John) tended toward legalism, since their background was Jewish and ...


1

Early Christian societies kept track of the widows, orphans, and other people in their local area who needed the help of the body. Part of standard Christian action, then as now, was to render assitance to those who had no resources for themselves. Here, Paul is refering to that list. To answer your question even more directly, in the absence of a state ...



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