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The Liddell-Scott-Jones dictionary (Ninth Edition, p. 421) states unambiguously that the phrase διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ should be translated as "taught by God." They also reference Isaiah 54:13. In Classical Ancient Greek, verbs that denote knowing, learning, etc. take the genitive for what we would consider their direct objects. This would tend to support the ...


4

This is a great question, in order to answer the question there is a lot to consider with regard to the order of the books. There seems to be a lot of agreement that the letters were sent in the order that we read them in the scriptures, so I won't deal with that, but when I try to see how it could be the other way around (ie. 2 Thes and then 1 Thes) What ...


4

I agree with the previous answer by Joseph and will seek to reiterate it by looking at the immediate context of 1 Thess. 4. In 1 Thess. 4:13 Paul refers to "those who are asleep" and is simply trying to encourage them since it seems that some of them were grieving. They were under the misconception that the dead would not experience the coming of the Lord. ...


4

I don't think so. The return of Christ can't be reasonably connected to Rosh Hashanah because the shofar was blown on many other occasions as well, including war. Besides, it is more likely that the trumpets your mention would be understood by ancient Jews as the 'silver trumpets' blown daily by the priests in the temple. We can't tell in the Greek which ...


4

Lexical Analysis The Greek word παρουσία is formed from the combination of the preposition παρά (para) and the noun οὐσία (ousia), which is derived from the participle οὖσα (ousa), meaning "being." Hence, παρουσία literally means "the act or state of being with," in other words, "presence." Therefore, the παρουσία of Jesus Christ is his presence with us. ...


4

The Greek text of 1 Thes. 4:3 according to the Textus Receptus (which the KJV is partly based on) states: τοῦτο γάρ ἐστιν θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ ὁ ἁγιασμὸς ὑμῶν ἀπέχεσθαι ὑμᾶς ἀπὸ τῆς πορνείας One would expect the Greek word καὶ between θεοῦ and ὁ, in order for it to be translated into English as "even." However, this isn't always necessary. Clearly θέλημα ...


3

The passage 1 Thess. 4:14-18 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep in Jesus. 15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend ...


3

I believe that in that particular reference, Paul is giving personal advice based on wisdom and is still to be accepted as inspired by the Holy Spirit. Taken in context (so perhaps a Socio-Rhetorical Critical Hermeneutic), he is ensuring that this piece of advice is not taken as on par with the very word of the "Lord." He is differentiating pieces of advice ...


3

We miss the point if we understand that Paul's advice is that a single person should remain single or get married depending on circumstances. His 'inspired' advice is a commentary on the command to "be fruitful and multiply". Paul is saying that fruitfulness and multiplying does not refer to bearing children in the flesh, but in serving Christ. He ...


3

Yes, it is inspired (2 Tim 3:15-17). In 1 Cor 7:25, Paul isn't saying that the next words don't come from God, but that he is not quoting Torah, either written or oral.


2

In the Christian New Testament, there were false teachers who had taught (during the First Century at the time of Paul) that the resurrection had already taken place. 2 Timothy 2:17-18 (NASB) 17 and their talk will spread like gangrene. Among them are Hymenaeus and Philetus, 18 men who have gone astray from the truth saying that the resurrection has ...


2

The prepositional phrase ὑπὸ τοῦ θεου (hypo tou theou) immediately follows ἀδελφοὶ ἠγαπημένοι (adelphoi ēgapēmenoi), and so the most natural reading (and that followed by virtually all modern translations) is "brothers beloved by God" (in fact I am not aware of any translations outside of the N/KJV that translate it any other way). "The election" is followed ...


2

There are many theological reasons for answering one way or another, but theology aside, I think there are some very important hermeneutical reasons for saying no. What not to do When we interpret symbols, it is very important that we interpret them in context. It is very poor procedure to attempt to assign symbolic meaning to a word everywhere it appears ...


2

We remember before our God and Father your work produced by faith, your labor prompted by love, and your endurance inspired by hope in our Lord Jesus Christ. In the Greek 'work' (εργου) signifies external 'acts' done by people, which can be good or evil. In contrast to this 'labour' (κοπου) does not focus on the 'thing' itself but in the 'effort' behind it....


2

I'm not sure there is a contradiction between the two letters, in 1 Thess 5:1 Paul says "But concerning the times and the seasons, brethren, you have no need that I should write to you." (NKJV) in 5:4 he says, "But you, brethren, are not in darkness, so that this Day should overtake you as a thief." and 5:6 says, "Therefore let us not sleep, as others do, ...


2

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, εἰ γὰρ πιστεύομεν ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἀπέθανεν καὶ ἀνέστη οὕτως καὶ ὁ θεὸς τοὺς κοιμηθέντας διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἄξει σὺν αὐτῷ The majority of the English translation of the Greek is straightforward. For if we believe that Jesus died and resurrected, likewise God will bring those asleep [διὰ τοῦ ...


2

It appears to actually be referring to those believers in Jesus who have died. This is supported by it being directly after 1 Thess. 4:13, which states Brothers and sisters, we do not want you to be uninformed about those who sleep in death, so that you do not grieve like the rest of mankind, who have no hope.


1

In simple terms it means "do not put out ". For example if we put water on a fire, then the flame goes out. What this is referring to is "Do not block or do away with the spirit." Another example is the spirit is the flame of a candle. If we hide the candle then we are "getting rid of the light".(God) So it means basically do not hide the existence of ...


1

My Greek is rusty but here the word has multiple meanings, it doesn't strictly refer just to alcohol, it also means having a clear mind. In this sense it could mean one should be meditative. There isn't any real evidence that it means abstinence, for which there is a Greek word. If they meant abstinence, then perhaps they should have said so (of course, ...


1

An interesting question “but wrath has come upon them to the uttermost.” [NKJV] is the most difficult statement in this passage to understand and is open to several interpretations. In Paul's writings God’s wrath is predominantly an eschatological event. Evil done by Jews or Gentiles earns God’s wrath, which will be executed on the day of wrath, (Rom 2:5). ...


1

This passage may not be original. Paul was a proud Jew, yet we see in 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16 that he castigates the Jews, speaking of them in the third pary, in spite of being a Jew himself: For you, brothers, have become imitators of the churches of God that are in Judea in Christ Jesus. For you suffer the same things from your compatriots as they ...


1

From Thayer's Lexicon: *παρουσία, παρουσίας, ἡ (παρών, παροῦσα presence: 1 Corinthians 16:17; 2 Corinthians 10:10; opposed to ἀπουσίᾳ, Philippians 2:12 (2 Macc. 15:21; (Aristotle, phys. 2, 3, p. 195a, 14; metaphys. 4, 2, p. 1013b, 14; meteor. 4, 5, p. 3>82a, 33 etc.)). 2. the presence of one coming, hence, the coming, arrival, advent, ((...



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