New answers tagged 1-peter
Your analysis is correct, and the following grammar citation provides the grammatical explanation to answer your remaining questions. Please click to enlarge. Thus the "splitting" of the clause with attributives (inserted in the middle of the sentence) is normal in Greek. Such "splitting" would not be typical in English.
When I read 1 Peter 3:20-21, I properly understand that water saves me the same way it saved Noah during the flood. When I go and read the account of the flood in Genesis, the only thing I find in association with the words "flood", "waters", and "water", are "destroy" and "destruction". The only thing , then, that water did during Noah's day, was ...
No contradiction There is not really anything contradictory about stating it this way just because Christ is understood to be pre-existent.1 This can be understood looking at it from two perspectives. Human Perspective You make the statement: I would never say "I foreknow my son" if he is sitting next to me. Yet I believe you can imagine a scenario ...
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