Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

8

Nicodemus Should Have Known from the Old Testament That the Old Testament is the source of the doctrine is confirmed by Christ Himself, for Nicodemus was supposed to have known these things. A slightly larger context helps see this: Jn 3:3-10 (NKJV) 3 Jesus answered and said to him, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again [or "born ...


5

The origin of the Christian teaching of the ‘new birth’ is at most partly an outworking of the Hebrew concept of a resurrection, it uses words in Greek that can barely be traced in other literature and on the whole is therefore entirely something new. The Greek word used in 1 Peter 1:23 (αναγεγεννημενοι) is actually quite hard to find in any other Greek ...


4

My Hebrew is basic, but I do read Greek. Sarah refers to Abraham as her kurios in Genesis 18:12 in the Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament.) Yet she does not address him directly with that word in her commentary of 1 Peter, Karen Jobes (2005:205) notes that "This noun [kurios] is the only lexical connection between the story of Sarah and Peter’s claim.” ...


4

Marriage isn't 50-50. It's both parties giving 100%. Dr. Emerson Eggerichs addresses the differences in the commands extensively in his book Love and Respect and on his website, most recently in a September 4 blogpost. This verse doesn't mean that women don't have to love and men don't have to be subject to their wives. Paul was giving instructions about ...


4

The Talmud uses a similar phrase (in Hebrew) regarding the conversion of proselytes to Judaism. The rabbis stipulated that a convert to Judaism had to perform three acts during the conversion process: offering a sacrifice, circumcision, and immersion ("baptism").1 In the Babylonian Talmud, Seder Nashim, Tractate Yevamot, Folio 48b, Gemara English | Hebrew, ...


3

Another perspective on this issue: why should Paul have counselled "love" in each of the three cases of domestic relationship in Colossians 3:18-20 (wives to husbands, husbands to wives, children to parents)? The question assumes that this disposition -- certainly a norm in modern western nuclear families -- is also the default social configuration in ...


3

To answer the question I think we need to need to consider the whole verse and its context. Our English translations begin with “therefore” (οὖν), which suggests that Peter is drawing a conclusion from the previous verses (vv.18–22), where Peter writes about Christ’s victory over hostile powers through his death and resurrection. The connection between the ...


2

The Hebrew Bible speaks of "new birthing" involving water, which then later carries into the Christian New Testament. Specifically, water in the Hebrew Bible removes the contamination of death, and thus emerges "new life." To begin, the simple Hebrew verb חָטָא means to sin, but in the intensive forms of the verb (Piel, Pual, and Hithpael) the meaning ...


2

The context indicates that the people are still judged -- thus, some transgression must still be "charged" or "accounted" to them. Look and the verse after it: Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses [since death happened, there must be sin and transgression], even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam [Adam sinned against a specific ...


1

John says in his first letter, in verses 7 and 8, "For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement." It is obvious that we are saved by the blood of Jesus Christ, in that our sins are fully payed for by the act of His death, and there no longer stands any accusation or record of wrong against us ...


1

NOT WATER BAPTISM THAT SAVES YOU: It becomes immediately apparent, when reading this verse, that the ritual of water baptism, though symbolising a spiritual change that has taken place, is not the principal subject here. Peter informs us that he is NOT referring to "the physical removal of dirt from the flesh" (i.e. water baptism) but a spiritual reality of ...


1

Jewish commentaries don't dwell on her use of the word אדוני in that verse because it is clear from the context that she is referring to her husband. In fact, I searched all of my books and found no comment at all on the use of the word there. Everyone is much more interested in the rest of the sentence, where she laughs at the possibility of her and ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible