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While before the 20th century there was common agreement on common authorship between the Gospel and Epistles of John, there is, as you mention, no such agreement today. At the same time, we are quick to note, however, that John and 1 John share a vocabulary of words and thought forms to such an extent that no one has mounted a serious proposal that they are ...


6

Bibliographic Postscript This is offered as a supplement to Soldarnal's fine answer. Probably the most thorough (one is tempted to say "exhaustive") account of the internal evidence bearing on the question of the common authorship of gJohn and 1 John is found in A.E. Brooke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles (Edinburgh, 1912), ...


6

The context supports a causative understanding of the phrase "...we shall be like him, because we shall see him as he is", and the context is crucial to the nuance of correct interpretation too. 3:1See what kind of love the Father has given to us, that we should be called children of God; and so we are. The reason why the world does not know us is that ...


5

The authenticity of the Johannine comma, found in1 John 5:7, has been a subject of debate from the early sixteenth century. Wikipedia says the general consensus today is that that passage is a Latin corruption that entered the Greek manuscript tradition in subsequent copies. Manuscript evidence can be found here, in Wikipedia. The text including the comma ...


5

I assume the question is about the use of the word 'antichrist', rather than the concept to which the word refers. A related term, pseudochristos, 'false Christ', is found in Matthew 24:24 and in Mark 13:22. The concept of an antichrist, without using this term, is also found in the Book of Revelation. The earliest extra-biblical use of the term ...


4

Short Answer: Possible? Yes. Probable? No. The "advantages" of Synge's translation First, let's put to rest Synge's claims about the advantages of his translation. Regarding the consistently personal use of φανερόω, this verb does not have a consistently personal use (e.g. Mark 4:22) -- unless he means in this verse, which would be to commit the ...


3

You wouldn't expect the term 'antichrist' to gain traction in the church until the term Christ was firmly established, so it isn't surprising that whilst the church was mainly witnessing to the Jews that 'Jesus is the Christ' the term antichrist wasn't in use. Instead, other terms are used, see for example 2 Thess 2:3. However by the time John is writing ...


3

The Idea in Brief The present active indicative of the main verb points toward habitual sinning with specific emphasis on those unloving behaviors toward ones fellow believers and leaders. In other words, loving behaviors toward fellow believers and leaders are the actual "practice" of those born from God, not vice-versa. Discussion The verse in question ...


2

The Idea in Brief If the conscience condemns itself of past sins, the Spirit of God is greater. That is, despite self-condemnation, the Spirit of God is greater in power and might, and therefore provides full reassurance to the human conscience of complete forgiveness of sins. Discussion In this verse, there are variant readings in four places: [Καὶ] ...


2

The first way to approach this question is to look at the First Epistle of John as a whole, to see why it was written and whether there is a unity of structure. Harold W. Attridge says, in 'Christianity from the Destruction of Jerusalem to Constantine’s Adoption of the New Religion: 70-312 CE', published in Christianity and Rabbinic Judaism: A Parallel ...


2

THE APPARENT CONTRADICTION John does indeed make "a strong case" when he says that for believers to claim that they do not sin is tantamount to self-deception (1 John 1:8). So, what does he mean when he, later, informs the same believers that they actually "cannot sin" if they are "born of God" (3:9)? A PROFOUND TRUTH I believe that John is saying ...


1

A subject (A) in the nominative case plus οὐ δύναται plus infinitive (B) and ἀδύνατον plus a noun (A) in the accusative case plus an infinitive (B) are both correct classical Greek ways of saying "A cannot do B". There is no difference in meaning. See, for example, Smyth §2000 - §2002.


1

The grammatical structure found in Hebrews 6:6 appears to be the impersonal use of the predicate adjective in the neuter case (nominative singular form). That is, “it is impossible..." The subject is an infinitive, general thought (Smyth §1047), or statement of general truth (Smyth §1048). In other words, this grammatical structure is a blanket statement of ...


1

Short Answer: The word πειθω has the basic sense (in the active voice) of "convince" or "persuade" (cf. Gingrich) and καρδια just means "heart". So literally it would be "convince our heart". However, the reason there is so much debate surrounding the translation of this phrase is not that the terms are unclear, but that there is a bigger theological debate ...


1

This is a very good example of the difference between translation and paraphrase. καρδία is an absolutely ordinary Greek word, part of the core vocabulary of Classical, Koine and Modern Greek. It means “heart”. Of course, in this passage it is used figuratively, but in English too “heart” is used figuratively on a daily basis. Sometimes I have the impression ...


1

Excellent question, Susan. There are different perspectives on this. Some take it that John's own thinking about the epistle changed at this point in his writing, and he began to think of it as a work that would be completed (e.g. Longacre). Others take it that the first set of statements is in regard to what he is presently writing, while the second set is ...


1

Some things to consider.... Lawlessness in the bible is also translated as transgressors, godless, without law, offense, wickedness, evildoers, guilty... John 12:49 For I have NOT SPOKEN on My own, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a command as to what I should say and what I should speak. Deuteronomy 18:18 I will raise up for them a PROPHET ...



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