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6

I don't think it's a mistake in the NASB. The identity of ὁ λόγος ("the word") in 1 John 1:1 is puzzling and may have been intentionally ambiguous. To make matters more complicated, the syntax of vv. 1-3 is complex and odd. The basic sequence is: a string of relative clauses that form the compound object (of a verb not seen until v. 3) (v. 1a); a ...


5

I assume the question is about the use of the word 'antichrist', rather than the concept to which the word refers. A related term, pseudochristos, 'false Christ', is found in Matthew 24:24 and in Mark 13:22. The concept of an antichrist, without using this term, is also found in the Book of Revelation. The earliest extra-biblical use of the term ...


5

The authenticity of the Johannine comma, found in1 John 5:7, has been a subject of debate from the early sixteenth century. Wikipedia says the general consensus today is that that passage is a Latin corruption that entered the Greek manuscript tradition in subsequent copies. Manuscript evidence can be found here, in Wikipedia. The text including the comma ...


5

The considerations here are much the same as those I discussed in a previous answer. I have attempted to develop those ideas and tailor it to the passage in question. [I]s it incorrect to read this clause as "love is God"? Yes, it is. In Greek, the subject of a clause can generally be identified as the substantive in the nominative case. However, ...


3

You wouldn't expect the term 'antichrist' to gain traction in the church until the term Christ was firmly established, so it isn't surprising that whilst the church was mainly witnessing to the Jews that 'Jesus is the Christ' the term antichrist wasn't in use. Instead, other terms are used, see for example 2 Thess 2:3. However by the time John is writing ...


2

27 But the anointing which you have received from Him abides in you, and you do not need that anyone teach you; but as the same anointing teaches you concerning all things, and is true, and is not a lie, and just as it has taught you, you will abide in Him. (NKJV) The annointing refers to the Holy Spirit since it 1) was received from Jesus, 2) teaches ...


2

The first way to approach this question is to look at the First Epistle of John as a whole, to see why it was written and whether there is a unity of structure. Harold W. Attridge says, in 'Christianity from the Destruction of Jerusalem to Constantine’s Adoption of the New Religion: 70-312 CE', published in Christianity and Rabbinic Judaism: A Parallel ...


1

A subject (A) in the nominative case plus οὐ δύναται plus infinitive (B) and ἀδύνατον plus a noun (A) in the accusative case plus an infinitive (B) are both correct classical Greek ways of saying "A cannot do B". There is no difference in meaning. See, for example, Smyth §2000 - §2002.


1

The grammatical structure found in Hebrews 6:6 appears to be the impersonal use of the predicate adjective in the neuter case (nominative singular form). That is, “it is impossible..." The subject is an infinitive, general thought (Smyth §1047), or statement of general truth (Smyth §1048). In other words, this grammatical structure is a blanket statement of ...


1

In John 16:7-11, Jesus outlined the work of the Holy Spirit, when he said: Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. And when he is come,he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: Of ...


1

Yes, brother does mean the same as believer in 1 John. John uses the term brother because of the believers special relationship with God the Father. All believers, according to John, have been born of God. 1 John 5:1 states Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves whoever has been born ...


1

It may be that when 1 John 5:6 says by "water" it means physical birth and "blood" it means physical death. The Spirit is His presence. That is how I understand the gospel of John 3:5-6 where Jesus says in v5 "unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God," followed by v6 where Jesus says "That which is born of the flesh is ...


1

Some things to consider.... Lawlessness in the bible is also translated as transgressors, godless, without law, offense, wickedness, evildoers, guilty... John 12:49 For I have NOT SPOKEN on My own, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a command as to what I should say and what I should speak. Deuteronomy 18:18 I will raise up for them a PROPHET ...


1

1 John 3:14 says: We know that we have passed from death to life, because we love the brethren. He who does not love his brother abides in death. So, for John, the notion of life and death is much like Schrödinger's experiment with his cat - the state of a person is uncertain until one takes a peek inside the box. John exhorts his readers to take a ...



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