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I assume the question is about the use of the word 'antichrist', rather than the concept to which the word refers. A related term, pseudochristos, 'false Christ', is found in Matthew 24:24 and in Mark 13:22. The concept of an antichrist, without using this term, is also found in the Book of Revelation. The earliest extra-biblical use of the term ...


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The first way to approach this question is to look at the First Epistle of John as a whole, to see why it was written and whether there is a unity of structure. Harold W. Attridge says, in 'Christianity from the Destruction of Jerusalem to Constantine’s Adoption of the New Religion: 70-312 CE', published in Christianity and Rabbinic Judaism: A Parallel ...


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You wouldn't expect the term 'antichrist' to gain traction in the church until the term Christ was firmly established, so it isn't surprising that whilst the church was mainly witnessing to the Jews that 'Jesus is the Christ' the term antichrist wasn't in use. Instead, other terms are used, see for example 2 Thess 2:3. However by the time John is writing ...



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