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The text is saying that all were baptised "into Moses" in the cloud and in the sea: 2 καὶ πάντες εἰς τὸν Μωϋσῆν ⸀ἐβαπτίσαντο ἐν τῇ νεφέλῃ καὶ ἐν τῇ θαλάσσῃ, (SBLGNT 1Co 10.2) It appears as both baptisms, cloud and sea, together represent one baptism: that "into Moses". The New Testament talks about a baptism of all believers in a body (of Christ) in ...


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This text talks about Adam and Jesus, each one being the head of their respective race. Those in the race of Adam are referred to in the text as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ", v.22 (these are the unbelievers), and those in the race of Jesus as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ". Verse 23 is a new sentence that adds additional detail with respect to the order of the resurrection ...


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After reading: The question: If Christ is the head of his body, and his body is his bride, then he is his own bride? The Father and the Lamb and the Holy Spirit are actively reversing what happened to us in the first Adam. In the future the Head will be connected to the Body, and in the new Second Adam the Bride. In Rev 21 Then I saw a new heaven and ...


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Yes it would be wrong to say that the Red Sea represents the blood of the Lord Jesus Christ. The baptism takes place because of the cloud that guided the Israelites.It was a cloud of Water and Fire and Jesus would baptise with fire as recorded in The book of Matthew .The Israelites were not under the sea-but they were under the cloud (baptism).The sea ...


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Typological-theological perspective My understanding from this passage and other NT texts is that the blood of the Passover Lamb represents Jesus' blood, while the Red Sea represents baptism. The reason this can be confusing (if I'm following your question) is that both the Red Sea crossing (type) and baptism (antitype) seem to be salvific in texts like ...


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The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, ...


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The article in Greek does not function like it does in English (where it makes a word definite.) As I have outlined here, the presence of the article in Greek typically stresses identity, while the absence typically stresses quality. (However, there are even exceptions to this rule, so we need to be careful with blanket statements.) So yes, it could refer ...


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The word θεός occurs 159 times in the dative singular in the Greek New Testament (NA28). In all cases with the anarthrous construct (no occurrence of the definite article), the reference is not to "a god" but is instead in reference to the creator of the heavens and earth. In other words, there appears no references to "a god" in the Greek New Testament, ...



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