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9

The Didache includes Maranatha in its prescribed post-Eucharistic prayer: Didache 10.6 (Schaff) 'Let grace come, and let this world pass away. Hosanna to the God of David. If any one is holy let him come, if any one is not holy let him repent. Maranatha. Amen.' This is a clearly eschatological context. The epilogue of the Revelation actually says ...


8

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose Pelagius Augustine Antiochus.1 UBS3 cites P46vid? in support of μυστήριον however the question mark follows "vid" because the editors were not sure of the ...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical ...


6

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. As one of many signs of his self-abnegation, he claims to subordinate even his own identity to those to whom he speaks. The contrast does not stop with ...


6

Used with an object in the Genitive case (as here), it means "a marker indicating that an activity or event is in some entity’s interest, for, in behalf of, for the sake of someone/something" and "a marker of the moving cause or reason, because of, for the sake of, for" (BDAG lexicon). So, for the sake of our sins and because of our sins. It parallels the ...


5

Answer: Although both Faith and Hope are functions of the "Psyche," Hope carries with it an emotional sense of "Joyful Expectation;" whereas Faith carries with it a rational sense of Certain Expectation. Luke 23:8, NASB - Now when Herod saw Jesus, he was exceedingly glad; for he had desired for a long time to see Him, because he had heard many ...


5

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first ...


4

What is the best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς in 1 Cor 11:4? The best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς would be (covering-)over the head. First, we see the exact same Greek prepositional phrase occurs in the Septuagint in the following verse. Esther 6:12 (LXX) 12ἐπέστρεψεν δὲ ὁ Μαρδοχαῖος εἰς τὴν αὐλήν, Αμαν δὲ ὑπέστρεψεν εἰς τὰ ἴδια λυπούμενος κατὰ ...


4

I'd tend to look back at 1 Corinthians 10:14-17 (NIV), note the focus on one and unity. 14 Therefore, my dear friends, flee from idolatry. 15 I speak to sensible people; judge for yourselves what I say. 16 Is not the cup of thanksgiving for which we give thanks a participation in the blood of Christ? And is not the bread that we break a ...


4

The destruction of the flesh is indeed a difficult expression to determine the meaning of. One of the difficult aspects of interpreting a difficult-to-interpret phrase is related to exegesis. Exegesis is the process of determining what a text says. As exegetes, we need to ask at least two questions of a phrase within a text: What are the exact words the ...


3

Paul speaks of tongues throughout chapter 14, reviewing the entire chapter will prove useful. I've split my response into the answer in summary first and my work following it. Also, I've split my work into sections (1,2,3) and (A,B,C) which you can refer to when reading the answer. The Answer Tongues are mentioned along side prophecy many times and mention ...


3

Even when words have meanings that span semantic ranges in other languages (such as how both Hebrew and Greek use the same words for wife and woman), context is key to understanding the meaning. In fact, words rarely map one-to-one across languages. This is why mechanical translations don't work for the final copy. Take Jesus' words for example: But I ...


3

The translation discrepancy can be boiled down to different readings of the Greek words καυχησωμαι, “I may boast”, and καυθησομαι, “I may be burned.” Kevin Brown wrote a well-cited textual criticism on this topic. Here is the conclusion that he came to: There is no obvious answer to this textual dilemma in 1 Cor. 13:3 as both the external and internal ...


3

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, ...


2

The Greek noun ἔκτρωμα occurs three times in the LXX. (Please click here.) In one instance, the wider context appears to be in reference to defiance of the authority of God. In Numbers 12:12, Miriam is struck with leprosy because of her defiance of the authority of Moses; in fact, Miriam had arrogated herself the title of spokesperson of the Lord on par ...


2

The only answer which gives a clear reading is "a veil", because only it provides a very clear symmetry with the hair. First of all, this is a perfectly logical gloss for "κατακαλύπτεται" (glossed as "cover" in many translations) given Plato's use in the Meno: Socrates One might tell even blindfolded (κατακεκαλυμμένος), Meno, by the way you ...


2

Just back up a verse: 21 In the Law it is written, "BY MEN OF STRANGE TONGUES AND BY THE LIPS OF STRANGERS I WILL SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE, AND EVEN SO THEY WILL NOT LISTEN TO ME," says the Lord. That's a quote from Isaiah 28 (which is addressed to drunken, immature judges, priests and prophets): 11 For with mocking lips and a foreign tongue he will ...


2

I believe you have misunderstood the context of what Paul is talking about in Gal 3:27-28. Taking the verse in context we see Paul has just been speaking of faith and the law and the verse before draws this out in that it speaks to all that believe, that they are "sons" through faith. He does not mention "daughters" but does endorse this concept and it is ...


2

While I admire all the theological, philosophical, philological and hermeneutical acumen displayed in the other answers and comments, I believe that an analogy drawn from human affairs is much more satisfactory. In fact it perfectly highlights the difference. [Faith] Suppose that you have built a relationship of trust with a person. Suppose this person ...


2

The Idea in Brief The relationship between faith, hope, and love appears in correspondence to the three crowns of rewards mentioned in the New Testament. If this correspondence, or alignment, is correct, then specific nuances appear that discriminate the meaning between faith and hope. Discussion There are three crowns of reward found in the New ...


2

The word θεός occurs 159 times in the dative singular in the Greek New Testament (NA28). In all cases with the anarthrous construct (no occurrence of the definite article), the reference is not to "a god" but is instead in reference to the creator of the heavens and earth. In other words, there appears no references to "a god" in the Greek New Testament, ...


2

The Idea in Brief The image of blood and water appears in the Red Sea crossing in addition to the crossing of the River Jordan into the Promised Land. That is, each crossing occurred in tandem with the Passover Sacrifice and Feast, and therefore appear as parallel chronological events (since they occurred in tandem with Passover). In the former instance, ...


2

There is one single meaning in both the Hebrew Bible (Old Testament) and New Testament: the cloud represents the Divine Presence. The Divine Presence corresponds to the Spirit, by whom the believer arrives to divine rest through the water. The 19th Century Bible scholar Hermann Olshausen (1825) made the following comment in this regard (with emphasis added): ...


2

Yes, see this Paul is apparently citing from the Corinthians’ letter when he says “we all have knowledge” (8:1). It becomes clearer in 8:4 that the knowledge that they are claiming is based on an idiosyncratic interpretation of Deut. 6:4 (and perhaps other idol-rejecting texts of the OT; see, e.g., Deut. 32:17; 2 Kings 19:18; 2 Chron. 13:9; Isa. ...


2

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god). However, Paul, being a ...


2

Since the previous answer quoted Josephus, I would like to draw on this reference also: (Book XII, Chapt. 5:1 (Loeb 12:241) Antiquities of the Jews) And the sons of Tobias took the part of Menelaus, but the greater part of the people assisted Jason; and by that means Menelaus and the sons of Tobias were distressed, and retired to Antiochus, and ...


1

The verb σῴζεσθε appears in the present passive indicative (second person plural form). So the idea is present tense. That is, Wu and Tan (2010) structure the sentence as follows; here the word σῴζεσθε modifies the words "the gospel" found in the previous verse. Please click to enlarge. Thus the following translation would be accurate. 1 Cor 15:2 ...


1

Paul is not defining a cult here, he simply cannot be in the larger context. It would be eisegesis for those who say he is and not exegesis, we must let the text speak. He is clearly speaking to "the church of God, which is at Corinth" (1:2) and, if a cult, then he is saying that a cult is the church, which shatters the modern notion of it. No, he is ...



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