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6

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. As one of many signs of his self-abnegation, he claims to subordinate even his own identity to those to whom he speaks. The contrast does not stop with ...


6

There probably is no "saying" The whole phrase "meaning of the saying" is not in the Greek manuscripts (at least not in Nestle-Aland nor Byzantine Majority), and thus is added by the NIV translators. No other major translations add those words, and they appear to confuse the issue in doing so (however, the discussion below will point to why they probably ...


5

Answer: Although both Faith and Hope are functions of the "Psyche," Hope carries with it an emotional sense of "Joyful Expectation;" whereas Faith carries with it a rational sense of Certain Expectation. Luke 23:8, NASB - Now when Herod saw Jesus, he was exceedingly glad; for he had desired for a long time to see Him, because he had heard many ...


4

The classical Greek word ἀρρενοκοίτης (or ἀρσενοκοίτης in Koine Greek) means "sodomy" according to its usage in antiquity (please click here, and note its use and translation in paragraph 686, line 5, where the direct reference are to those Arabs who lie with other men for sexual intercourse). So there is no ambiguity of the use of this word in 1 Cor 6:9-10 ...


4

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first ...


4

What is the best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς in 1 Cor 11:4? The best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς would be (covering-)over the head. First, we see the exact same Greek prepositional phrase occurs in the Septuagint in the following verse. Esther 6:12 (LXX) 12ἐπέστρεψεν δὲ ὁ Μαρδοχαῖος εἰς τὴν αὐλήν, Αμαν δὲ ὑπέστρεψεν εἰς τὰ ἴδια λυπούμενος κατὰ ...


4

I'd tend to look back at 1 Corinthians 10:14-17 (NIV), note the focus on one and unity. 14 Therefore, my dear friends, flee from idolatry. 15 I speak to sensible people; judge for yourselves what I say. 16 Is not the cup of thanksgiving for which we give thanks a participation in the blood of Christ? And is not the bread that we break a ...


4

The destruction of the flesh is indeed a difficult expression to determine the meaning of. One of the difficult aspects of interpreting a difficult-to-interpret phrase is related to exegesis. Exegesis is the process of determining what a text says. As exegetes, we need to ask at least two questions of a phrase within a text: What are the exact words the ...


3

Even when words have meanings that span semantic ranges in other languages (such as how both Hebrew and Greek use the same words for wife and woman), context is key to understanding the meaning. In fact, words rarely map one-to-one across languages. This is why mechanical translations don't work for the final copy. Take Jesus' words for example: But I ...


3

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, ...


3

Homosexuality is an invention of the 19th century. Before then, people had words for specific sexual acts (sodomy etc.), but they did not have the concept of any inherent or acquired “sexual orientation”. This concept originated in modern psycho-pathology. To translate ἀρσενοκοίτης as “homosexual”, as some modern Bible translations do, is an anachronism, if ...


3

The translation discrepancy can be boiled down to different readings of the Greek words καυχησωμαι, “I may boast”, and καυθησομαι, “I may be burned.” Kevin Brown wrote a well-cited textual criticism on this topic. Here is the conclusion that he came to: There is no obvious answer to this textual dilemma in 1 Cor. 13:3 as both the external and internal ...


3

The Greek verb συστέλλω occurs in 1 Cor 7:29 and in only one other verse of the New Testament. Acts 5:5-6 (NASB) 5 And as he heard these words, Ananias fell down and breathed his last; and great fear came over all who heard of it. 6 The young men got up and covered him up, and after carrying him out, they buried him. The verb means "to wrap up." The ...


3

1 Corinthians 13:1 Tongues of men or angels meaning? Eloquence was something greatly admired in the first century and the people of Corinth were no exception. Paul did not offer eloquence in his oratory and writings (cf. 1 Corinthians 2:1, 4; 2 Corinthians 10:10). This may possibly explain the Corinthians' fascination with tongues. Paul’s application ...


3

Paul speaks of tongues throughout chapter 14, reviewing the entire chapter will prove useful. I've split my response into the answer in summary first and my work following it. Also, I've split my work into sections (1,2,3) and (A,B,C) which you can refer to when reading the answer. The Answer Tongues are mentioned along side prophecy many times and mention ...


2

The Greek noun ἔκτρωμα occurs three times in the LXX. (Please click here.) In one instance, the wider context appears to be in reference to defiance of the authority of God. In Numbers 12:12, Miriam is struck with leprosy because of her defiance of the authority of Moses; in fact, Miriam had arrogated herself the title of spokesperson of the Lord on par ...


2

The only answer which gives a clear reading is "a veil", because only it provides a very clear symmetry with the hair. First of all, this is a perfectly logical gloss for "κατακαλύπτεται" (glossed as "cover" in many translations) given Plato's use in the Meno: Socrates One might tell even blindfolded (κατακεκαλυμμένος), Meno, by the way you ...


2

In addition, we know that he was born in Tarsus of Cilicia but raised in Jerusalem. Paul states this in Acts 22:3 where he adds he was trained as a Pharisee "at the feet of" Rabban Gamaliel the Elder. As he was "brought up" in Jerusalem, one may conclude his family moved there when Paul was young. Whether his biological father was a Pharisee or Paul is ...


2

I believe you have misunderstood the context of what Paul is talking about in Gal 3:27-28. Taking the verse in context we see Paul has just been speaking of faith and the law and the verse before draws this out in that it speaks to all that believe, that they are "sons" through faith. He does not mention "daughters" but does endorse this concept and it is ...


2

Just back up a verse: 21 In the Law it is written, "BY MEN OF STRANGE TONGUES AND BY THE LIPS OF STRANGERS I WILL SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE, AND EVEN SO THEY WILL NOT LISTEN TO ME," says the Lord. That's a quote from Isaiah 28 (which is addressed to drunken, immature judges, priests and prophets): 11 For with mocking lips and a foreign tongue he will ...


2

The Idea in Brief The relationship between faith, hope, and love appears in correspondence to the three crowns of rewards mentioned in the New Testament. If this correspondence, or alignment, is correct, then specific nuances appear that discriminate the meaning between faith and hope. Discussion There are three crowns of reward found in the New ...


2

While I admire all the theological, philosophical, philological and hermeneutical acumen displayed in the other answers and comments, I believe that an analogy drawn from human affairs is much more satisfactory. In fact it perfectly highlights the difference. [Faith] Suppose that you have built a relationship of trust with a person. Suppose this person ...


2

The word θεός occurs 159 times in the dative singular in the Greek New Testament (NA28). In all cases with the anarthrous construct (no occurrence of the definite article), the reference is not to "a god" but is instead in reference to the creator of the heavens and earth. In other words, there appears no references to "a god" in the Greek New Testament, ...


2

Typological-theological perspective My understanding from this passage and other NT texts is that the blood of the Passover Lamb represents Jesus' blood, while the Red Sea represents baptism. The reason this can be confusing (if I'm following your question) is that both the Red Sea crossing (type) and baptism (antitype) seem to be salvific in texts like ...


1

What is important to understand is that the gifts of the Holy Spirit operate in conjunction with the human spirit(pneuma). Paul is not suggesting he is merely praying with his own intellect, or his own 'spirit'; rather, when one operates in the gifts of the Spirit one must understand the Context one is operating in. Before we delve into Chapter 14, which ...


1

That verse is in the context of a larger argument on resurrection. It's largely in response to the question posed in verse 12: "Now if Christ is proclaimed as raised from the dead, how can some of you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?" Paul goes on to prove resurrection. In v29, Paul is NOT arguing for the practice of the baptism of the dead. ...


1

The following summary is inductive, which takes specific points from the epistle to the Corinthians (and Galatians), and then arrives to the following general summary as probable, but not certain. The these things refer to the divisions among the Corinthians. That is, Paul was using himself and Apollos as the figureheads of these schisms, when in fact the ...


1

In 1 Cor 15:24, Paul is explaining that Jesus is submitting His power and authority to God the Father. This is not related to reign of Christ on earth. Even if it were related to His reign, Jesus has always been submissive to the Father. If you keep reading you will see in 1 Cor 15:28 When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will ...



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