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10

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose Pelagius Augustine Antiochus.1 UBS3 cites P46vid? in support of μυστήριον however the question mark follows "vid" because the editors were not sure of the ...


9

The Didache includes Maranatha in its prescribed post-Eucharistic prayer: Didache 10.6 (Schaff) 'Let grace come, and let this world pass away. Hosanna to the God of David. If any one is holy let him come, if any one is not holy let him repent. Maranatha. Amen.' This is a clearly eschatological context. The epilogue of the Revelation actually says ...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical ...


7

Used with an object in the Genitive case (as here), it means "a marker indicating that an activity or event is in some entity’s interest, for, in behalf of, for the sake of someone/something" and "a marker of the moving cause or reason, because of, for the sake of, for" (BDAG lexicon). So, for the sake of our sins and because of our sins. It parallels the ...


7

Background Points First, Paul is not writing an exact accounting of every instance of Christ being seen in 1 Cor 15:5-8. He does run through an ordered list of instances, which are leading to his point of his own late encounter (v.8). Second, Paul is writing Corinthians after the selection of Matthias. So at the time of his writing, Matthias, chosen to ...


6

Grammatical gender (in this case feminine) is not (usually) related to human gender. Most words have a single gender that is used in all sentences regardless of whether it belongs to a man or woman. The possessive pronoun in the English of I Corinthians 11:4 does not come from the word for head itself, but rather is "added" to make the English ...


5

Grammatically, 1 Corinthians 13:9 is ambiguous enough that Paul could be referring to the parts of the body of Christ ("individually"). However, the context makes it clear that this is not the case and that he has the more common meaning of "partially" in mind. Paul's argument In chapter 12 of 1 Corinthians, Paul first lists a number of possible spiritual ...


4

No, there is no contradiction here. Even without tearing into the details of what each concept means, a plain reading of the text introduces no contradiction. First of all, your characterization of the first passage as Jesus "abdicating" isn't quite accurate as that word would imply he completely removed himself from the position of authority. That's not ...


4

It's unlikely Paul is saying the Temple in Jerusalem is replaced with human beings: Paul doesn't use "true Temple" terminology, as if to say the Temple of God in Jerusalem is no longer God's house. There's no textual requirement to read his words this way. Paul took part in the Temple service (Acts 21) and sought to be in Jerusalem during the Biblical ...


3

I think the problem with suggesting 'ἐκ μέρους' is implying a part of a specific 'body' as referenced in 1 Corinthians 12:27 is firstly that there is no such mention of any 'body' in the context of the sentence: ἐκ μέρους γὰρ γινώσκομεν καὶ ἐκ μέρους προφητεύομεν· ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ τὸ τέλειον, τὸ ἐκ μέρους καταργηθήσεται. It is the latter half of this ...


3

Paul does make various allusions to the Book of Exodus, so it is also possible in this case. However, the context of Exodus 34:15 is different to that of 1 Corinthians 10:27 and the message is different. Any allusion to Exodus would have been for the purpose of correcting or redefining the restrictions imposed by the earlier text. In Exodus, Moses is warned ...


2

An examination of Greek compound words used to translate Hebrew may be especially helpful in sorting the meaning of Paul’s αρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites). In using this apparent neologism – only extant in 1Cor.6:9, 1Tim.1:10, and in references back to these verses – Paul seems to have purposely avoided the available Greek vocabulary for idolatry, prostitution, ...


2

Yes, see this Paul is apparently citing from the Corinthians’ letter when he says “we all have knowledge” (8:1). It becomes clearer in 8:4 that the knowledge that they are claiming is based on an idiosyncratic interpretation of Deut. 6:4 (and perhaps other idol-rejecting texts of the OT; see, e.g., Deut. 32:17; 2 Kings 19:18; 2 Chron. 13:9; Isa. ...


2

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god). However, Paul, being a ...


2

Since the previous answer quoted Josephus, I would like to draw on this reference also: (Book XII, Chapt. 5:1 (Loeb 12:241) Antiquities of the Jews) And the sons of Tobias took the part of Menelaus, but the greater part of the people assisted Jason; and by that means Menelaus and the sons of Tobias were distressed, and retired to Antiochus, and ...


2

I cannot see any. I'd also like to know why translators thought 'baffle' could be appropriate here. In a loose dynamic translation it's tempting to let it slide. But the same Greek word is used twice in that sentence the only difference being the active vs passive conjugation. ἀνακρίνει verses ἀνακρίνεται (1Co 2:15 BGT) I would translate it in the ...


2

There are no serious manuscript or textual issues with this verse (Jerome's Vulgate notwithstanding). The English translation of “the twelve” appears to represent the original text and the author’s intention. Commentators have offered various explanations for this number which appears to fail to account for Judas’ death and Thomas’ absence. A popular ...


2

Do both of these quotes say one should prefer celibacy to marriage? The short answer is: no Notice in Matt 19:11-12 Jesus begins by saying "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given" and he concludes "The one who can accept this should accept it." clearly then he is speaking about a particular class of people. Paul is ...


1

You may first wish to begin by consulting a parallel Bible or a more modern translation. It is important to update the grammar of the Bible periodically lest important meaning be lost in words that fall out of the collective English vocabulary or (and perhaps worse) meaning appear where there was none as meanings and language evolves and changes. ...


1

Yes, the question is rhetorical, expecting the negative response, but no, this does not suggest Paul thinks that God is unconcerned about animals or that this Old Testament passage was originally about Apostles. Paul was attempting to draw the reader's attention to an Old Testament passage which clearly teaches the same principle Paul was trying to teach ...


1

After Jesus rose from the dead early on Sunday morning, the first person who saw him was Mary Magdalene, the woman from whom he had cast out seven demons. Mark 16:9 As explained here, in Gill's Exposition, this actually has multiple possible meanings, and is 'the eleven' in the Vulgate, but it can mean that more people were present and included in ...


1

Versus 12-16 teach a second ground for divorce, besides adultery, that applies strictly to the marriage of a believer and a nonbeliever. Such a marriage should arise only if one of two married unbelievers becomes a believer. This is true since it is written that believers should not yoke themsleve in marriage with unbelievers (see v. 39 & 2C 6:14). The ...


1

It is difficult to believe that Jerome perceived any theological distinction between “communication” of Christ’s blood and “participation” of the Lord’s body. I can only suggest that he is using the rhetorical figure known as “interpretatio”, where a statement is repeated with substitution of one synonym by another, for the sake of stylistic variety. There ...


1

1 Corinthians 8:6 is based on two Old Testament texts: Malachi 2:11-12 (LXX) and Deuteronomy 6:4 (LXX). Malachi 2:11-12 (LXX) speaks of "one God" and "one Father"as the self-same "Lord" of Israel. Deuteronomy 6:4 (LXX) speaks of "one Lord" as the self-same "God" of Israel. Without the New Testament revelation of plurality of persons in one Godhead, these ...


1

The Greek word κεφαλὴ in 1 Corinthians 11:3 should mean " source" or " origin." This is the suitable reading in the text because it is naturally supported by the context as well as by Biblical paradigm: Christ came from God the Father-- He is the only begotten Son who is of same nature with the Father ( John 1:14,18;3:16; 8:42). Subordinate in role, equal ...


1

Faith has a variety of applications. For example it can be to believe something specific requiring discernment in each instance and it is used to denote the covenant of eternal inheritance in contrast to Sinai. When used with hope Paul is drawing on the deeply entrenched and traditional Rabbinic teaching of emunah and bitachon - faith and trust - a very ...


1

According to Thiselton's volume on 1 Corinthians in the New International Greek Testament Commentary, the connection between χαλκός and pagan worship is disputed among scholars. Here's the relevant passage at length, including references: χαλκὸς ἠχῶν is the subject of a research article by W. Harris under the title “ ‘Sounding Brass’ and Hellenistic ...


1

Clarke in his commentary on 1 Cor 13:1 does not mention the idea of waking the gods, but he does show an Aeneid quote which Clarke claims is an instance of a trumpet is being used to scare off demonic creatures (harpies). My own reading of the quote is that it is being used as a call to war against them: Ergo, ubi delapsae sonitum per curva dedere ...



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