Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

9

If there is a contradiction at all between Paul's tradition and the tradition of the Gospel writers, it can be resolved as a text critical issue here in 1 Corinthians 11:24. Most of the early manuscripts simply have Τοῦτό μού ἐστιν τὸ σῶμα τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν - "This is my body, which is for you." The short phrase τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν also appears in 2 Corinthians 9:3, ...


7

Paul, in context, leaves no doubt about his monotheism. 1 Cor 8 deals with food offered to idols. As such, we expect the text to deal with "so-called gods". Moreover, I find it interesting that you chose not to include v4 in your quote: 4 Therefore concerning the eating of things offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and ...


7

I would love to make a long, boring answer, but this is basic Greek and can be referenced in any Greek grammar. πᾶς ἀνὴρ - "every man" πᾶσα δὲ γυνὴ - "but every woman" δέ is what grammarians call a "postpositive" and never comes first in a Greek clause, although it does come first in the English translation of the Greek clause. That is why it is located ...


6

Short Answer: Paul wanted the Corinthians to address blatant immorality in the congregation, and to be able to work through legal disputes within the context of the Church, but he didn't want them going around criticizing people and fault-finding. Words have a semantic range, so it is always important to look at what the author was attempting to communicate ...


5

The difference is that one is plural and the other is not. Greek had not invented upper- and lower-case letters at the time of Paul (as some languages still have not). Paul's word is θεοι (the-oi); where he writes of God, as in 1 Cor 8:4, it's θεος (the-os). Or, more accurately, something like ΘΕΟΙ and ΘΕΟC; but there is no differentiation between the ...


5

LONG ANSWER: As I understand it, we know nothing else about Paul's family, other than what Acts 23:6 indicates - this verse tells us that Paul's nephew, and thus probably his sister also, cared about him. The fact that the plot became known to Paul's nephew, might be taken as an indication that he was not a Christian and thus still hung in orthodox Jewish ...


4

The classical Greek word ἀρρενοκοίτης (or ἀρσενοκοίτης in Koine Greek) means "sodomy" according to its usage in antiquity (please click here, and note its use and translation in paragraph 686, line 5, where the direct reference are to those Arabs who lie with other men for sexual intercourse). So there is no ambiguity of the use of this word in 1 Cor 6:9-10 ...


4

Great questions! And let me first say that I want to encourage you to keep reading the way you are reading. You have some great insights. I think some of your insights are in focus in this passage and others are not though. Let's take a look at Paul's flow of thought here and see what we can discover. Broad Literary Context The verses in question are part ...


4

There probably is no "saying" The whole phrase "meaning of the saying" is not in the Greek manuscripts (at least not in Nestle-Aland nor Byzantine Majority), and thus is added by the NIV translators. No other major translations add those words, and they appear to confuse the issue in doing so (however, the discussion below will point to why they probably ...


4

The destruction of the flesh is indeed a difficult expression to determine the meaning of. One of the difficult aspects of interpreting a difficult-to-interpret phrase is related to exegesis. Exegesis is the process of determining what a text says. As exegetes, we need to ask at least two questions of a phrase within a text: What are the exact words the ...


3

The full context of this passage makes Paul's case very clear - the body is to expel the immoral unbeliever, and the Accuser (Satan) is in charge of destroying the flesh, not the church. The problem: 5:1 It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that even pagans do not tolerate: A man is sleeping with his father’s ...


3

In Greek, the word "us" is in direct apposition to the word "apostles" - that is, the "us" are the same as the apostles. Paul may be referring to the twelve apostles, but is more likely using the Greek word "apostolos" to mean "messenger / sent one", as it usually does. In this sense of the word, Paul, Silas, and Timothy were all "apostles", in the same ...


3

1 Corinthians 13:1 Tongues of men or angels meaning? Eloquence was something greatly admired in the first century and the people of Corinth were no exception. Paul did not offer eloquence in his oratory and writings (cf. 1 Corinthians 2:1, 4; 2 Corinthians 10:10). This may possibly explain the Corinthians' fascination with tongues. Paul’s application ...


3

I'd tend to look back at 1 Corinthians 10:14-17 (NIV), note the focus on one and unity. 14 Therefore, my dear friends, flee from idolatry. 15 I speak to sensible people; judge for yourselves what I say. 16 Is not the cup of thanksgiving for which we give thanks a participation in the blood of Christ? And is not the bread that we break a ...


2

The Greek noun ἔκτρωμα occurs three times in the LXX. (Please click here.) In one instance, the wider context appears to be in reference to defiance of the authority of God. In Numbers 12:12, Miriam is struck with leprosy because of her defiance of the authority of Moses; in fact, Miriam had arrogated herself the title of spokesperson of the Lord on par ...


2

The "five words" is not a reference to something in particular and is actually meant to be arbitrary. The statement is meant to show how much more important it is to speak something understandable than to speak in tongues. If we consider the verse in its context it will be easier to understand. In particular consider 1 Corinthians 14:15-19 (ESV): 15 ...


2

1 Corinthians 27-29: "Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you. But this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that ...


2

pre·scrip·tive /priˈskriptiv/ adjective: prescriptive1. of or relating to the imposition or enforcement of a rule or method de·scrip·tive /diˈskriptiv/ adjective adjective: descriptive1. serving or seeking to describe. synonyms: illustrative, expressive, graphic, detailed, lively, vivid, striking; More explanatory, explicative "descriptive ...


2

What James3.1 said, plus: I like to link 1 Corinthians 12:22-25 with 1:26-31, because there are some commonalities in the two passages which go a long way in answering at least some of your questions. Since the Corinthians had a problem with pride and were given to boasting, first about the leaders with whom they most closely identified (namely, Paul, ...


2

The only thing I care to add to Affable Geek's fine answer is to cite the book of Job, where we read, "Satan answered the LORD and said, 'Skin for skin? Yes, all that a man has he will give for his life. However, put forth Your hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh; he will curse You to Your face.' So the LORD said to Satan, 'Behold, he is in your ...


2

The following comments add very little, if anything, to Jas 3.1's fine answer. They may, however, have some relevance to the "judgment phobic" culture in which we live today in America. Christians are to use good judgment in the appropriate circumstances, whether the context is church discipline, or the context is applying wisdom and discernment to a ...


2

This is a great question, but please allow me to provide some background first in order to answer this question. First, there are two "sacraments" in view: baptism and the bread & cup. Paul indicates that the Israelites coming from Egypt were "baptized" and subsequently ate the manna (bread) and spiritual drink (cup). However, they did not enter the ...


2

The Greek text states, ἑκάστῳ δὲ δίδοται ἡ φανέρωσις τοῦ πνεύματος πρὸς τὸ συμφέρον which is translated as, but each man is given the manifestation of the Spirit «πρὸς τὸ συμφέρον». The Greek word πρός is a preposition with various meanings. In this instance, it is followed by a present active participle in the neuter gender, singular number, ...


2

The clause cited in the question does not contain the word "head," this is (properly) inferred in most major English translations from the surrounding context. The word κατακαλύπτω, simply meaning to "cover" or "veil",1 can reasonably be broken into two roots: κατά + καλύπτω. καλύπτω means "to cause to be covered in some physical way, cover someone (up)" ...


2

In addition, we know that he was born in Tarsus of Cilicia but raised in Jerusalem. Paul states this in Acts 22:3 where he adds he was trained as a Pharisee "at the feet of" Rabban Gamaliel the Elder. As he was "brought up" in Jerusalem, one may conclude his family moved there when Paul was young. Whether his biological father was a Pharisee or Paul is ...


2

Louw 88.280 88.280 ἀρσενοκοίτης, ου m: a male partner in homosexual intercourse—‘homosexual.’ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι … οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται … βασιλείαν θεοῦ κληρονομήσουσιν ‘don’t you know that … no adulterers or homosexuals … will receive the kingdom of God’ 1 Cor 6:9–10. It is possible that ἀρσενοκοίτης in certain ...


2

The Greek verb συστέλλω occurs in 1 Cor 7:29 and in only one other verse of the New Testament. Acts 5:5-6 (NASB) 5 And as he heard these words, Ananias fell down and breathed his last; and great fear came over all who heard of it. 6 The young men got up and covered him up, and after carrying him out, they buried him. The verb means "to wrap up." The ...


2

What is the best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς in 1 Cor 11:4? The best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς would be (covering-)over the head. First, we see the exact same Greek prepositional phrase occurs in the Septuagint in the following verse. Esther 6:12 (LXX) 12ἐπέστρεψεν δὲ ὁ Μαρδοχαῖος εἰς τὴν αὐλήν, Αμαν δὲ ὑπέστρεψεν εἰς τὰ ἴδια λυπούμενος κατὰ ...


1

With two exceptions, the Greek words seen in Acts 2:4-11; 1 Cor. 14:2-20, and translated into English as "tongue" or "tongues," are forms of the Greek verb ΓΛΩΣΣΑ (γλῶσσα, glossa). The implication is that glossa refers to a regional dialect or language spoken by someone has not naturally learned it. Glossa does not refer to the ecstatic (enraptured) praise ...


1

Are their two different types of “tongues” spoke about in the NT? I believe it would be a misnomer to say that there are two different “types” of tongues. However, there are two separate and distinct “operations” of tongues. The Operation of Tongues The gift of speaking in tongues is seen to operate in two distinct ways: personal and corporate. Though ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible