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10

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose Pelagius Augustine Antiochus.1 UBS3 cites P46vid? in support of μυστήριον however the question mark follows "vid" because the editors were not sure of the ...


9

The Didache includes Maranatha in its prescribed post-Eucharistic prayer: Didache 10.6 (Schaff) 'Let grace come, and let this world pass away. Hosanna to the God of David. If any one is holy let him come, if any one is not holy let him repent. Maranatha. Amen.' This is a clearly eschatological context. The epilogue of the Revelation actually says ...


7

Used with an object in the Genitive case (as here), it means "a marker indicating that an activity or event is in some entity’s interest, for, in behalf of, for the sake of someone/something" and "a marker of the moving cause or reason, because of, for the sake of, for" (BDAG lexicon). So, for the sake of our sins and because of our sins. It parallels the ...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical ...


6

Restatement: What is the difference between Faith and Hope, in New Testament texts? Evidently, the usage of the Greek words, "Faith" and "Hope", are clearly distinct from each other, even used in the same sentence, so it seems there must be a notable difference between the two. Answer: "Hope" bears with it an emotional sense of "Joyful Expectation" ...


6

Background Points First, Paul is not writing an exact accounting of every instance of Christ being seen in 1 Cor 15:5-8. He does run through an ordered list of instances, which are leading to his point of his own late encounter (v.8). Second, Paul is writing Corinthians after the selection of Matthias. So at the time of his writing, Matthias, chosen to ...


5

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first ...


5

Even when words have meanings that span semantic ranges in other languages (such as how both Hebrew and Greek use the same words for wife and woman), context is key to understanding the meaning. In fact, words rarely map one-to-one across languages. This is why mechanical translations don't work for the final copy. Take Jesus' words for example: But I ...


3

Paul speaks of tongues throughout chapter 14, reviewing the entire chapter will prove useful. I've split my response into the answer in summary first and my work following it. Also, I've split my work into sections (1,2,3) and (A,B,C) which you can refer to when reading the answer. The Answer Tongues are mentioned along side prophecy many times and mention ...


2

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, ...


2

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on there way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story. While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites came to mean sodomy, it is not at all clear that this is what Paul meant it to mean. Unfortunately, this word has no established context prior to Paul's use of ...


2

Just back up a verse: 21 In the Law it is written, "BY MEN OF STRANGE TONGUES AND BY THE LIPS OF STRANGERS I WILL SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE, AND EVEN SO THEY WILL NOT LISTEN TO ME," says the Lord. That's a quote from Isaiah 28 (which is addressed to drunken, immature judges, priests and prophets): 11 For with mocking lips and a foreign tongue he will ...


2

The word θεός occurs 159 times in the dative singular in the Greek New Testament (NA28). In all cases with the anarthrous construct (no occurrence of the definite article), the reference is not to "a god" but is instead in reference to the creator of the heavens and earth. In other words, there appears no references to "a god" in the Greek New Testament, ...


2

While I admire all the theological, philosophical, philological and hermeneutical acumen displayed in the other answers and comments, I believe that an analogy drawn from human affairs is much more satisfactory. In fact it perfectly highlights the difference. [Faith] Suppose that you have built a relationship of trust with a person. Suppose this person ...


2

The Idea in Brief The relationship between faith, hope, and love appears in correspondence to the three crowns of rewards mentioned in the New Testament. If this correspondence, or alignment, is correct, then specific nuances appear that discriminate the meaning between faith and hope. Discussion There are three crowns of reward found in the New ...


2

This text talks about Adam and Jesus, each one being the head of their respective race. Those in the race of Adam are referred to in the text as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ", v.22 (these are the unbelievers), and those in the race of Jesus as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ". Verse 23 is a new sentence that adds additional detail with respect to the order of the resurrection ...


2

The Idea in Brief The image of blood and water appears in the Red Sea crossing in addition to the crossing of the River Jordan into the Promised Land. That is, each crossing occurred in tandem with the Passover Sacrifice and Feast, and therefore appear as parallel chronological events (since they occurred in tandem with Passover). In the former instance, ...


2

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god). However, Paul, being a ...


2

Yes, see this Paul is apparently citing from the Corinthians’ letter when he says “we all have knowledge” (8:1). It becomes clearer in 8:4 that the knowledge that they are claiming is based on an idiosyncratic interpretation of Deut. 6:4 (and perhaps other idol-rejecting texts of the OT; see, e.g., Deut. 32:17; 2 Kings 19:18; 2 Chron. 13:9; Isa. ...


2

There is one single meaning in both the Hebrew Bible (Old Testament) and New Testament: the cloud represents the Divine Presence. The Divine Presence corresponds to the Spirit, by whom the believer arrives to divine rest through the water. The 19th Century Bible scholar Hermann Olshausen (1825) made the following comment in this regard (with emphasis added): ...


2

Since the previous answer quoted Josephus, I would like to draw on this reference also: (Book XII, Chapt. 5:1 (Loeb 12:241) Antiquities of the Jews) And the sons of Tobias took the part of Menelaus, but the greater part of the people assisted Jason; and by that means Menelaus and the sons of Tobias were distressed, and retired to Antiochus, and ...


2

There are no serious manuscript or textual issues with this verse (Jerome's Vulgate notwithstanding). The English translation of “the twelve” appears to represent the original text and the author’s intention. Commentators have offered various explanations for this number which appears to fail to account for Judas’ death and Thomas’ absence. A popular ...


2

I cannot see any. I'd also like to know why translators thought 'baffle' could be appropriate here. In a loose dynamic translation it's tempting to let it slide. But the same Greek word is used twice in that sentence the only difference being the active vs passive conjugation. ἀνακρίνει verses ἀνακρίνεται (1Co 2:15 BGT) I would translate it in the ...


2

I think the problem with suggesting 'ἐκ μέρους' is implying a part of a specific 'body' as referenced in 1 Corinthians 12:27 is firstly that there is no such mention of any 'body' in the context of the sentence: ἐκ μέρους γὰρ γινώσκομεν καὶ ἐκ μέρους προφητεύομεν· ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ τὸ τέλειον, τὸ ἐκ μέρους καταργηθήσεται. It is the latter half of this ...


1

It is difficult to believe that Jerome perceived any theological distinction between “communication” of Christ’s blood and “participation” of the Lord’s body. I can only suggest that he is using the rhetorical figure known as “interpretatio”, where a statement is repeated with substitution of one synonym by another, for the sake of stylistic variety. There ...


1

"Head" Is a Neutral Word in the Bible There is nothing unusual about Paul's use of the word head in 1 Corinthians 11:3. Whether you interpret the word--in the sense it is used in verse 3--as origin (i.e., source) or authority over. The point is: each interpretation is correct in its own right. Where I think we get off the track is in thinking of the ...


1

The Greek word κεφαλὴ in 1 Corinthians 11:3 should mean " source" or " origin." This is the suitable reading in the text because it is naturally supported by the context as well as by Biblical paradigm: Christ came from God the Father-- He is the only begotten Son who is of same nature with the Father ( John 1:14,18;3:16; 8:42). Subordinate in role, equal ...


1

The article in Greek does not function like it does in English (where it makes a word definite.) As I have outlined here, the presence of the article in Greek typically stresses identity, while the absence typically stresses quality. (However, there are even exceptions to this rule, so we need to be careful with blanket statements.) So yes, it could refer ...



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