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This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first ...


Even when words have meanings that span semantic ranges in other languages (such as how both Hebrew and Greek use the same words for wife and woman), context is key to understanding the meaning. In fact, words rarely map one-to-one across languages. This is why mechanical translations don't work for the final copy. Take Jesus' words for example: But I ...

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