-2
votes
3answers
130 views

In 1 John 4:2b, what does John mean by ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα? “In flesh [and blood]” or “among humans/men”? And why is this such an important issue?

In 1 John 4:2b, what does John mean by ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα? According to the BDAG1, Here is the semantic domain of σάρξ, σαρκός from BDAG: σάρξ, σαρκός, ἡ (Hom.+; ‘flesh’). ① the material that ...
-2
votes
1answer
70 views

How do Hebrew sacrificial traditions compare with other cultures? [closed]

In the book of Leviticus, the people of Israel are given a number of instructions regarding when and how to perform sacrifices to God. I have often found that cultural context is extremely valuable ...
-3
votes
2answers
313 views

Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase “ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν” in John 8:58? [closed]

Why did Jesus only say "ἐγὼ εἰμί" rather than, "ἐγὼ εἰμί ὁ ὤν"?
-3
votes
2answers
247 views

Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language? [closed]

The arab has a way to express monotheism. La ilah la Ilalah In english, it means no god but the god. Or no god but Allah. Here, the word ilah in arabic language and the word god in english means ...
-4
votes
3answers
507 views

Under a Christian exegesis, is the promise of 'a future Prophet' Jesus, or all prophets culminating in Jesus?

In Deuteronomy, Moses promised that God will raise up 'a prophet': “The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers —it is to him you shall listen —(...

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