The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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55 views

In Revelation 13:8, should “ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου” be translated “from” or “before” the foundation of the world?

The phrase ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου is generally translated from the foundation of the world, and is translated this way in all occurrences of the phrase in the ESV, except in Revelation 13:8: and all ...
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0answers
47 views

What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?

ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, 1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881) and this ...
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vote
0answers
38 views

Why use the expression “is from of old”?

In Psalm 74:12 (ESV) we read "Yet God my King is from of old, ...". While I understand that to mean something like "Yet God my King is from ancient times", why would translators use the phrase "is ...
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0answers
26 views

What does the phrase “salvation, and glory, and power, belong to the Lord our God” mean in Revelation 19:1?

What does the phrase "salvation, and glory, and power, belong to the Lord our God" mean in Revelation 19:1? Most translations seem to render the text as "belong to our God": http://biblehub.com/...