The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
5
votes
2answers
334 views

The Correct Meaning of Genesis 6:3 - Also Flesh or Is Flesh?

This is a translational issue which the meaning changes greatly on, depending on how it is rendered. For a Christian reader this matter of spirit or flesh (or both) would be highly relevant. Some ...
38
votes
6answers
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Does the Bible mention unicorns?

I was reading Psalm 22 (from this question) and I found this verse: Psalms 22:21 (KJV) Save me from the lion's mouth: for thou hast heard me from the horns of the unicorns. When I switched ...
12
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3answers
398 views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying “I am he”?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
10
votes
3answers
376 views

What were the translators of the LXX thinking in rendering “virgin” in Isaiah 7:14?

Obviously we can not know for certain what they were thinking, but with some knowledge about ancient interpretations of this text and the translation philosophy employed by the LXX, I suspect someone ...
6
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2answers
2k views

Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points ...
2
votes
3answers
490 views

Why does the ESV use “surely” in Genesis 2:16 when all others say “freely”?

Someone has brought it to my attention that the ESV deviates from all other English translations in Genesis 2:16 by changing "freely" to "surely." The ESV is heavily endorsed by Calvinist pastors, so ...
11
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2answers
6k views

What translation philosophies have cause such a wide variation in translation of *tachash* skins?

In Exodus (e.g.: 26:14), we learn one of the coverings for the tabernacle is to be made of "תחש" (tachash) skins. The translation of this term appears to be especially difficult or contentious as ...
10
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2answers
1k views

Should the title in Isaiah 9 be translated?

Translators publishing for the Christian market translate the title in Isaiah 9:6: For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his ...
5
votes
1answer
1k views

Should the word elohim in Psalm 8:5 be translated into gods/angels/or god?

Should the word elohim in Psalm 8:5 be translated into gods/angels/or god? The NIV translates it this way: You have made them a little lower than the angels and crowned them with glory and ...
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5answers
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Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation

That's it. The translation should not favor any theology and should allow readers to read texts the way it really is For example Elohim -> gods Yea, I know that Elohim are often followed by ...
12
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2answers
366 views

Why do English translations sometimes, but not always, transform names instead of just transliterating them?

When translating a text you have to deal with names. While occasionally names are translated "semantically" (according to their meaning), usually we just keep the name as a name -- approximately. ...
10
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2answers
1k views

Did eve say “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”?

NET Version: "I have created a man just as the LORD did!" (Genesis 4:1) Most other translations have her giving credit to the Lord, whereas this one has her pretending to be a Godess. While this ...
6
votes
1answer
171 views

Language question in Mark 15:34

In Mark 15:34, why was part of the verse left in the Aramaic language instead of being translated into English? Why, if the rest was translated, does that line remain the same? 15:34 Around three ...
4
votes
2answers
250 views

Should the word 'satan' be left untranslated, merely be transliterated and left to the traditional connotations?

The word 'satan' is being used and heard as if it were a name. How could it be rendered in a way not distracting from its actual meaning of opposition and enmity? The texts where this is an issue are ...
15
votes
2answers
327 views

How does a Bible translator know if it is a poem?

Let's take 1 Tim 3:16 as an example among many others, where Paul wrote or quoted (ESV): Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the ...
5
votes
1answer
309 views

Is Hosea 6:1-3 a quotation?

Many translations wrap Hosea 6:1-3 in quotation marks. For instance, in the NJPS: “Come, let us turn back to the Lord: He attacked, and He can heal us; He wounded, and He can bind us up. In ...
2
votes
0answers
189 views

What are the translations of the Greek word “monogenes” in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word "monogenes" in Ancient Versions? Is it "only" or "only-begotten"? Latin Coptic Syriac Georgian etc. The following Bible verses have "monogenes" in it: ...
23
votes
2answers
1k views

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
6
votes
2answers
350 views

What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
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votes
2answers
1k views

What is Yahweh's gender? [closed]

Yahweh is often called "He" in english bibles. Is it so in Hebrew original? if yes, is there any other evidence of his masculitiny besides the pronoun? if no, why isn't Yahweh called "It"?
8
votes
3answers
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Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to ...
5
votes
4answers
844 views

How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the ...
5
votes
2answers
373 views

In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in ...
5
votes
2answers
179 views

Various translations of Psalm 19:3

Psalm 19:1-3 in the English Standard Version reads: 1 The heavens declare the glory of God,        and the sky above proclaims his handiwork. 2 Day to day pours ...
5
votes
3answers
247 views

Is Jesus the λόγος in Hebrews 4:12?

For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart ( ...
3
votes
2answers
337 views

John 14:2, why “dwelling places” in NABRE

Two translations of John 14:2. In my Father’s house there are many dwelling places. If there were not, would I have told you that I am going to prepare a place for you? (NABRE) In my ...
3
votes
4answers
427 views

How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
1
vote
0answers
60 views

What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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2answers
385 views

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

When I look into the Hebrew text I see at least 3 different spellings of what we translate into English as day or rest or more commonly "Sabbath". So how many different words in Greek are used to ...