Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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703 views

What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?

I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
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4answers
831 views

Does Paul refer to his past or present evil/sin in Romans 7

In Romans 7:19, Paul says this: For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I keep on doing. ESV Is Paul talking about "doing evil" in his present, converted state, or ...
5
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3answers
164 views

How does Paul answer the charge that God is not just?

Soldarnal asked a question about what charge Paul is defending God against in Romans 9:14. Assuming the charge is that God is unjust because chooses to love some and hate others on the basis of His ...
5
votes
2answers
135 views

What specific charge is brought against God in Romans 9:14?

In Romans 9:14, Paul asks the question, "What then shall we say? Is God unjust?" He replies, of course, "Not at all!" And then seemingly he goes on to give a reason for why God is not unjust. However, ...
9
votes
1answer
351 views

Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans

What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans? How much does he treat the details of the Greek? What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
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2answers
177 views

Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
5
votes
1answer
117 views

Does Romans 13:8 include a prohibition of taking loans?

Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. —Romans 13:8 (ESV) The most immediately obvious exegesis of this verse would be to take it to ...
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1answer
156 views

Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...