Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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Who is 'we' referring to in Romans 1:5?

Who does Paul refer to when he writes we in verse 5 in the beginning of his epistle to the Romans: Paul, [...] called as an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God [...] concerning His Son [...] ...
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What does Romans 10 have to do with Deuteronomy 30?

Romans 10:6-7 But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down) “or ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’” (that ...
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Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
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What is the Meaning of 'broken off' and 'cut off' in Romans 11 vv 20 and 22?

Romans 11:20, referring to Israel, says: "Granted. But they were broken off because of unbelief, and you stand by faith. Do not be arrogant, but tremble." (NIV) Romans 11:22, referring to ...
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Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?

In Romans 3:21, most English translations distinguish the two uses of νόμος (law) by capitalizing the second: Νυνὶ δὲ χωρὶς νόμου δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ πεφανέρωται μαρτυρουμένη ὑπὸ τοῦ νόμου καὶ τῶν ...
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Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
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According to Romans 5, is death caused by individual sin, or Adam's sin?

In Romans 5, Paul says: Romans 5:12 (ESV) 12  Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— ...
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What did 'adoption' mean to the Romans?

Romans 8 14 For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. 15 For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a ...
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Was the gospel mystery “secret” or “revealed through the prophets”?

In the doxology of Romans, Paul writes: Now to him who is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery that was ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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What specific charge is brought against God in Romans 9:14?

In Romans 9:14, Paul asks the question, "What then shall we say? Is God unjust?" He replies, of course, "Not at all!" And then seemingly he goes on to give a reason for why God is not unjust. However, ...
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Was Jesus unaware of Joel 2:32?

Matthew records Jesus saying: Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to ...
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Has the Apostle Paul ever been to Spain?

Paul expresses his intention to go to Spain in Romans 15: 24I hope to see you in passing as I go to Spain, and to be helped on my journey there by you, once I have enjoyed your company for a while....
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Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?

Romans 3:4b, Paul quoting the psalm (SBLGNT): Ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου καὶ νικήσεις ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε. The Hebrew (51:4) is always translated with God as the subject - "thy ...
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How should the prepositions in Romans 11:36 be translated?

Romans 11:36 has four propositions that provide a neat parallel structure: ὅτι ἐξ αὐτοῦ καὶ δι’ αὐτοῦ καὶ εἰς αὐτὸν τὰ πάντα· αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. The ESV translation is fairly ...
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If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? [closed]

If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? 1 Timothy 2:14 (NIV) And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who ...
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What is indicated by “δοξάζω” being in the aorist in Romans 8:30?

Every verb in Romans 8:30 is in the aorist: οὓς δὲ προώρισεν, τούτους καὶ ἐκάλεσεν· καὶ οὓς ἐκάλεσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδικαίωσεν· οὓς δὲ ἐδικαίωσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδόξασεν. Those whom he ...
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Does Romans 13:8 include a prohibition of taking loans?

Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. —Romans 13:8 (ESV) The most immediately obvious exegesis of this verse would be to take it to be ...
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How does Paul answer the charge that God is not just?

Soldarnal asked a question about what charge Paul is defending God against in Romans 9:14. Assuming the charge is that God is unjust because chooses to love some and hate others on the basis of His ...
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From Faith to Faith

For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “But the righteous man shall live by faith.” [Romans 1:17] When I read from “faith to faith” I thought it was a ...
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KJV Romans 12:3 according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith

In the King James Bible Romans 12:3 states ... "according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith"... Does this mean his followers were given a different "measure of faith"; that each ...
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In Romans 1:30 what does “Inventors of evil things” imply?

The KJV renders Romans 1:30 as (for context starting verse 28): Rom 1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those ...
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Romans 8:11 - present or future?

Romans 8:11 appears in the following context: 9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he ...
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How is Romans 10:17 a consequence of 10:16?

I'm having trouble understanding the flow of the argument in Romans 10:16-18. It seems to say that because Israel did not accept the good news (10:16), therefore faith comes from hearing the message (...
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Does Paul see baptism as symbolic or as instrumental?

In Romans, Paul makes an argument that we are justified because one man (Jesus) died for all. Then he introduces this rhetorical question: What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that ...
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Question about translation of Romans 4:9

In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse.1 (Emphasis added for sake of comparison) ...
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What is the role of “glory” in Romans 6:4?

What is the role of "glory" in Romans 6:4? Rom 6:4 Therefore, through baptism we were buried with him into his death so that, just as the Messiah was raised from the dead by the Father's ...
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What does “freedom of the glory of the children of God” mean (Romans 8:21)?

In Romans 8:21 we read in the ESV: that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. I could make sense of "......
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Does Paul allude to the context of Psalm 19:4 in Romans 10:18?

In Romans 10:17, Paul says that hearing comes through the word of Christ. Then in verse 18, he quotes the Psalmist in response to the question, "But I ask, have they [the Israelites] not heard?" ...
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Logic and life from the dead in Romans 11

I am having trouble following the logic of Rom 11:11-24 altogether. I would be in a better position if I could get a handle on two verses that seem to be using the same sort of logic. Romans 11, vv. ...
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Greek text of Romans 8:28

Is there a Greek word for 'things', as in Romans 8:28? And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose.
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What are “unnatural” relations or relations “use beyond nature”?

Romans 1:26-27 reads: For this reason God gave them over to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged the natural sexual relations for unnatural ones, and likewise the men also ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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Does Paul believe that God sandbagged the Jews with a law they couldn't keep?

In Galatians 3:10, Paul says: "For all who rely on works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, ‘Cursed be every one who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, and do ...
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Romans 2:12-16 Pagan Gentiles or Christian Gentiles

Is the following passage concerning pagan gentiles or Christian gentiles? For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall ...
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Are the thoughts of the Gentiles conflicting in Romans 2:15?

Romans 2:15 NIV They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times ...
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What does “more than conquerors” mean in Romans 8:37?

Romans 8:37 (NIV) says, "No, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him who loved us." All these things refers to trials, whether persecutions, or famine, or death. Against these ...
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What is the meaning of Romans 2:12?

All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judge by the law. (NIV) Basically what I'm asking is: What does it mean to sin Apart from ...
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In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
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Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
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In Romans 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase «πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης»?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: KJV, 1769 τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει ...
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Is 'all-things' literally including any conceivable thing in Rom 8:28?

Paul says: And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. (ESV, Romans 8:28) Does 'all-things' literally include ...
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Romans 16:7 : “fellowprisoners” in the book of Romans?!

According to Wikipedia, scientists are unanimous about Romans being written before Paul's imprisonment. But I just came across Romans 16:7: Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my ...
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In what way has God been found by “those who did not seek” him (Romans 10:20)?

Then Isaiah is so bold as to say, “I have been found by those who did not seek me; I have shown myself to those who did not ask for me.” Romans 10:20 (ESV) According to Paul, in what way ...
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Is God's will in Romans 12:2 talking about the future sequence of historic events or the pattern of priorities for the audience's lives?

Romans 12:2 states: Do not conform to the pattern of this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind. Then you will be able to test and approve what God’s will is—his good, pleasing ...
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How to translate and understand the syntax in Romans 12:10?

In Romans 12:10, I'm having difficulty translating the verse since it appears to lack verbs (and even subjects). Furthermore, What is the significance of «τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ» and «τῇ τιμῇ» being declined ...
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Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
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Is Paul saying that Jews will be saved in Romans 4:16?

So the promise is received by faith. It is given as a free gift. And we are all certain to receive it, whether or not we live according to the law of Moses, if we have faith like Abraham's. For ...
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Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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Confused between Romans 2:12 vs John 14:6

It appears to be a contradiction to me. In Roman 2:12 Paul states that there is a way to salvation without Jesus if you obey your conscience and have never heard of Jesus. Of course in John 14:6 Jesus ...