Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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What are “works of the law”?

What is meant by the expression "the works of the law" in the following verses? Romans 3:28 For we consider that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the law Galatians 2:16 who ...
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4answers
132 views

Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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Are the thoughts of the Gentiles conflicting in Romans 2:15?

Romans 2:15 NIV They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times ...
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KJV Romans 12:3 according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith

In the King James Bible Romans 12:3 states ... "according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith"... Does this mean each of us was given a different "measure of faith"; that each was ...
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Does Paul see baptism as symbolic or as instrumental?

In Romans, Paul makes an argument that we are justified because one man (Jesus) died for all. Then he introduces this rhetorical question: What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that ...
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Does Paul allude to the context of Psalm 19:4 in Romans 10:18?

In Romans 10:17, Paul says that hearing comes through the word of Christ. Then in verse 18, he quotes the Psalmist in response to the question, "But I ask, have they [the Israelites] not heard?" ...
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In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
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What is the meaning of Romans 2:12?

All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judge by the law. (NIV) Basically what I'm asking is: What does it mean to sin Apart from ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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Does Paul believe that God sandbagged the Jews with a law they couldn't keep?

In Galatians 3:10, Paul says: "For all who rely on works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, ‘Cursed be every one who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, and do ...
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Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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What is the “evil” Paul keeps doing in Romans 7:19?

Paul confesses that he has the desire to do what is good, but that he cannot carry it out. Quoting NIV 1984: Romans 7:19: For what I do is not the good I want to do; no, the evil I do not want ...
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Romans 16:7 : “fellowprisoners” in the book of Romans?!

According to Wikipedia, scientists are unanimous about Romans being written before Paul's imprisonment. But I just came across Romans 16:7: Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my ...
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Judgement with or without the Law [closed]

According to Rom 5:13, pre-flood humanity was not judged guilty of sin according to the Law because, “for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there ...
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1answer
160 views

Which Hermeneutical schema support individual portions of texts taken out of order?

The "Roman Road" is a common evangelistic tool that features quoting 5 passages from Romans out of textual order (3:23, 6:23, 5:8, 10:13, 10:9-10.) This has been rejected by some because of the small ...
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Why does the word “void” in Romans 3:31 mean “nullify”? [closed]

Why would footnotes pertaining to the words "make void" in this passage of Romans be understood as "nullify"? Romans 3:31, King James Bible "Authorized Version", Cambridge Edition Do we then ...
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Are all these verbs in Rom. 8:29-30 in aorist?

Are all the high-lightened verbs in the passage below in aorist? For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn ...