Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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In Romans 3:26, why not translate dikaiosunēs as “justice” rather than “righteousness?”

In the following passage there are four different Greek words sharing the same root. Romans 3:23-26 (ESV) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace ...
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Abraham as heir of the world?

In Romans 4:13, Paul states that Abraham "received the promise that he would be heir of the world." But I can't find a direct promise to Abraham of such a thing. He is promised a great deal of ...
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Was Jesus unaware of Joel 2:32?

Matthew records Jesus saying: Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to ...
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8k views

What does “more than conquerors” mean in Romans 8:37?

Romans 8:37 (NIV) says, "No, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him who loved us." All these things refers to trials, whether persecutions, or famine, or death. Against these ...
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136 views

Does Paul allude to the context of Psalm 19:4 in Romans 10:18?

In Romans 10:17, Paul says that hearing comes through the word of Christ. Then in verse 18, he quotes the Psalmist in response to the question, "But I ask, have they [the Israelites] not heard?" ...
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Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
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345 views

Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...
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How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?

The word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) is often translated in Romans 3:25 as "propiation," "atonement," or "sacrifice [of atonement]" in Western conservative biblical translations. In Hebrews 9:5 it is ...
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Are all these verbs in Rom. 8:29-30 in aorist?

Are all the high-lightened verbs in the passage below in aorist? For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn ...
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Are Andronicus and Junia(s) apostles?

Two of our most literal English translations render Romans 16:7 in remarkably different ways: NASB: Greet Andronicus and Junias, my kinsmen and my fellow prisoners, who are outstanding among the ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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How does Paul answer the charge that God is not just?

Soldarnal asked a question about what charge Paul is defending God against in Romans 9:14. Assuming the charge is that God is unjust because chooses to love some and hate others on the basis of His ...
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Romans 8:11 - present or future?

Romans 8:11 appears in the following context: 9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he ...
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134 views

How should the prepositions in Romans 11:36 be translated?

Romans 11:36 has four propositions that provide a neat parallel structure: ὅτι ἐξ αὐτοῦ καὶ δι’ αὐτοῦ καὶ εἰς αὐτὸν τὰ πάντα· αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. The ESV translation is fairly ...
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Upon whom do we call? Reconciling OT & NT

This question was spurred on by my interaction with another related question on BHSE It appears as though two different names being called upon for Salvation; yet, there is only one whereby we may ...
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687 views

What does “freedom of the glory of the children of God” mean (Romans 8:21)?

In Romans 8:21 we read in the ESV: that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. I could make sense of ...
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Sense of περἰ in Romans 8:3

Romans 8:3 says the following καἰ περἰ ἁμαρτἰας (and for sin) Many translations suggest as an offering for sin as an alternate translation. I can see how περί can mean in place of, but is as an ...
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Will glory be revealed “in us” or “to us” in Romans 8:18?

Here's Romans 8:18 in ESV: For I consider that the sufferings of this present time are not worth comparing with the glory that is to be revealed to us. and here is Romans 8:18 in NKJV: For I ...
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Romans 16:7 : “fellowprisoners” in the book of Romans?!

According to Wikipedia, scientists are unanimous about Romans being written before Paul's imprisonment. But I just came across Romans 16:7: Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my ...
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159 views

Does Romans 13:8 include a prohibition of taking loans?

Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law. —Romans 13:8 (ESV) The most immediately obvious exegesis of this verse would be to take it to ...
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Does Paul see baptism as symbolic or as instrumental?

In Romans, Paul makes an argument that we are justified because one man (Jesus) died for all. Then he introduces this rhetorical question: What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that ...
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According to Romans 5, is death caused by individual sin, or Adam's sin?

In Romans 5, Paul says: Romans 5:12 (ESV) 12  Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— ...
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Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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Is the usual translation of “ηὐχόμην” as “I could wish” justified in Romans 9:3?

In the early part of Romans 9, Paul speaks fervently of his hope and anguish concerning his fellow-countrymen, even contemplating losing his own salvation if it could gain theirs: 1I am speaking ...
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What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?

I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
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531 views

Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans

What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans? How much does he treat the details of the Greek? What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
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167 views

What is indicated by “δοξάζω” being in the aorist in Romans 8:30?

Every verb in Romans 8:30 is in the aorist: οὓς δὲ προώρισεν, τούτους καὶ ἐκάλεσεν· καὶ οὓς ἐκάλεσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδικαίωσεν· οὓς δὲ ἐδικαίωσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδόξασεν. Those whom he ...
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3answers
281 views

Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?

Paul in his letter to the Romans writes in 6:12-13: Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desires. Do not offer any part of yourself to sin as an instrument ...
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574 views

Was the gospel mystery “secret” or “revealed through the prophets”?

In the doxology of Romans, Paul writes: Now to him who is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery that was ...
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How is Romans 10:17 a consequence of 10:16?

I'm having trouble understanding the flow of the argument in Romans 10:16-18. It seems to say that because Israel did not accept the good news (10:16), therefore faith comes from hearing the message ...
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193 views

In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
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Which Hermeneutical schema support individual portions of texts taken out of order?

The "Roman Road" is a common evangelistic tool that features quoting 5 passages from Romans out of textual order (3:23, 6:23, 5:8, 10:13, 10:9-10.) This has been rejected by some because of the small ...
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What specific charge is brought against God in Romans 9:14?

In Romans 9:14, Paul asks the question, "What then shall we say? Is God unjust?" He replies, of course, "Not at all!" And then seemingly he goes on to give a reason for why God is not unjust. However, ...
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Justify (δικαιόω) in James 2:24, Romans 3:28

James 2:24 says: You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. Romans 3:28 says: For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. What are ...