Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

learn more… | top users | synonyms

0
votes
0answers
9 views

Romans 9:27 vs Revelation 14:3 vs 11:26: How many Jews will be saved?

Romans 9:27 vs Revelation 14:3 vs 11:26: How many Jews will be saved? Will it be only a few?: Rom 9:27 Isaiah also calls out concerning Israel, "Although the descendants of Israel are as ...
7
votes
2answers
82 views

Is He “who searches hearts” the Holy Spirit or the Father (Romans 8:27)?

My question is a bit two-fold. It's regarding the proper understanding of Romans 8:26-27, specifically verse 27. Recently, I've come to disagree with many commentator's understanding of this passage. ...
0
votes
2answers
71 views

In Romans 1:9, is Paul swearing?

What does Paul mean by "God is my witness"?: Rom 1:9 For God is my witness, whom I serve with my spirit in the gospel of his Son, that without ceasing I mention you Westcott and Hort / [...
2
votes
1answer
55 views

How to translate and understand the syntax in Romans 12:10?

In Romans 12:10, I'm having difficulty translating the verse since it appears to lack verbs (and even subjects). Furthermore, What is the significance of «τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ» and «τῇ τιμῇ» being declined ...
0
votes
0answers
42 views

In Romans 7:3-6, does Paul's polemic regarding the dissolution of legal requirements through faith-death hold water?

Paul's argument in Romans 7:3-6 appears to be an exercise in semantics in that he excuses a circumcised Jew from his covenant with God by claiming that they are "dead through the body of Christ". Is ...
1
vote
1answer
65 views

In Romans 8:8-9, how are the saints “not in the flesh”?

Paul contrasts those who are "in the flesh" and those who are "in the spirit/breath": ESV Rom 8:8 Those who are in the flesh cannot please God. Rom 8:9 You, however, are not in the flesh but ...
3
votes
3answers
51 views

Romans 2:12-16 Pagan Gentiles or Christian Gentiles

Is the following passage concerning pagan gentiles or Christian gentiles? For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall ...
0
votes
1answer
99 views

Is Romans 1:27 referring to venereal disease?

Paul writes: Rom 1:27 and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the ...
1
vote
3answers
105 views

In Romans 6:23 why does Paul speak of the “wages” of sin and not the “penalty” for sin?

In Romans 6:23 why does Paul speak of the "wages" of sin and not the "penalty" for sin?: Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our ...
4
votes
4answers
133 views

What is the role of “glory” in Romans 6:4?

What is the role of "glory" in Romans 6:4? Rom 6:4 Therefore, through baptism we were buried with him into his death so that, just as the Messiah was raised from the dead by the Father's ...
6
votes
1answer
103 views

What is the Meaning of 'broken off' and 'cut off' in Romans 11 vv 20 and 22?

Romans 11:20, referring to Israel, says: "Granted. But they were broken off because of unbelief, and you stand by faith. Do not be arrogant, but tremble." (NIV) Romans 11:22, referring to ...
2
votes
0answers
58 views

Predestinate: Before Birth or Before Judgment?

Predestinate: to determine or set a destiny ahead of an appointed time. I am curious as to why the appointed time in regard to 'predestinate' is so often interpreted to mean "before time began," when ...
5
votes
5answers
119 views

From Faith to Faith

For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “But the righteous man shall live by faith.” [Romans 1:17] When I read from “faith to faith” I thought it was a ...
1
vote
3answers
102 views

Did Paul imply that the Jews had the capacity to believe in Romans 9:32?

In the passage to follow, Paul explains why most of the Jews remained unsaved. He writes: "Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as if it were based on works. They have stumbled over ...
7
votes
1answer
119 views

Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
2
votes
4answers
158 views

Confused between Romans 2:12 vs John 14:6

It appears to be a contradiction to me. In Roman 2:12 Paul states that there is a way to salvation without Jesus if you obey your conscience and have never heard of Jesus. Of course in John 14:6 Jesus ...
5
votes
2answers
367 views

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
3
votes
1answer
59 views

In Romans 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase «πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης»?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: KJV, 1769 τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει ...
10
votes
4answers
166 views

Does Romans 4:17 speak of God calling things into existence?

Rom 4:16-17: That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring — not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who ...
7
votes
3answers
217 views

What sort of phrasing is “the many” in Romans 5?

Most English translations have something in Romans that is an interesting turn of phrase—at least to my ears it instinctively makes sense but at the same time it in more at home in a carefully worded ...
7
votes
1answer
74 views

Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
7
votes
1answer
136 views

Why did Paul use χρηματισμός to introduce his quotation from the Elijah narrative in Romans 11?

Romans 11:4 (NA28 | ESV): ἀλλὰ τί λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ χρηματισμός; κατέλιπον ἐμαυτῷ ἑπτακισχιλίους ἄνδρας, οἵτινες οὐκ ἔκαμψαν γόνυ τῇ Βάαλ. But what is God’s reply to him? (literally: what does the ...
2
votes
1answer
97 views

Is God's will in Romans 12:2 talking about the future sequence of historic events or the pattern of priorities for the audience's lives?

Romans 12:2 states: Do not conform to the pattern of this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind. Then you will be able to test and approve what God’s will is—his good, pleasing ...
6
votes
1answer
107 views

Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
2
votes
1answer
93 views

In what way has God been found by “those who did not seek” him (Romans 10:20)?

Then Isaiah is so bold as to say, “I have been found by those who did not seek me; I have shown myself to those who did not ask for me.” Romans 10:20 (ESV) According to Paul, in what way ...
0
votes
0answers
24 views

How to reconcile Romans 3:28 and James 2:24? [duplicate]

Paul said that justification is not by works but only by faith: For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law. Romans 3:28 (ESV) This coheres with his other ...
9
votes
4answers
1k views

In Romans, is there a difference between “children of God” and “sons of God”?

Paul's letter to the Romans calls believers "children of God" and "sons of God." Is there a difference between the two? For instance, are the sons of God mature believers and children of God are all ...
6
votes
2answers
146 views

Who is 'we' referring to in Romans 1:5?

Who does Paul refer to when he writes we in verse 5 in the beginning of his epistle to the Romans: Paul, [...] called as an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God [...] concerning His Son [...] ...
5
votes
2answers
263 views

If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? [closed]

If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? 1 Timothy 2:14 (NIV) And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who ...
3
votes
3answers
126 views

Is 'all-things' literally including any conceivable thing in Rom 8:28?

Paul says: And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. (ESV, Romans 8:28) Does 'all-things' literally include ...
4
votes
4answers
126 views

Logic and life from the dead in Romans 11

I am having trouble following the logic of Rom 11:11-24 altogether. I would be in a better position if I could get a handle on two verses that seem to be using the same sort of logic. Romans 11, vv. ...
3
votes
2answers
106 views

Greek text of Romans 8:28

Is there a Greek word for 'things', as in Romans 8:28? And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose.
6
votes
4answers
388 views

Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?

In Romans 3:21, most English translations distinguish the two uses of νόμος (law) by capitalizing the second: Νυνὶ δὲ χωρὶς νόμου δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ πεφανέρωται μαρτυρουμένη ὑπὸ τοῦ νόμου καὶ τῶν ...
7
votes
2answers
122 views

What happens ‘by nature’ in Romans 2:14?

Romans 2:14: ὅταν γὰρ ἔθνη τὰ μὴ νόμον ἔχοντα φύσει τὰ τοῦ νόμου ποιῶσιν, οὗτοι νόμον μὴ ἔχοντες ἑαυτοῖς εἰσιν νόμος·(NA28) For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the ...
11
votes
1answer
77 views

Differences in justification method in Romans 3:30

Romans 3:30 εἴπερ εἷς ὁ θεὸς ὃς δικαιώσει περιτομὴν ἐκ πίστεως καὶ ἀκροβυστίαν διὰ τῆς πίστεως.(NA28) since God is one—who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised ...
4
votes
2answers
1k views

In Romans 1:30 what does “Inventors of evil things” imply?

The KJV renders Romans 1:30 as (for context starting verse 28): Rom 1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those ...
3
votes
2answers
2k views

What are “unnatural” relations or relations “use beyond nature”?

Romans 1:26-27 reads: For this reason God gave them over to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged the natural sexual relations for unnatural ones, and likewise the men also ...
6
votes
3answers
293 views

What does Romans 10 have to do with Deuteronomy 30?

Romans 10:6-7 But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down) “or ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’” (that ...
9
votes
1answer
185 views

Does Romans 2:22 refer to temple robbery or sacrilege?

The word in question is ἱεροσυλέω, a hapax in the NT.1 It’s a compound from ἱερός (temple) and συλάω (rob), and most modern translations indicate that "rob temples" is the appropriate meaning here. ...
3
votes
0answers
86 views

Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
2
votes
1answer
58 views

Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
9
votes
1answer
636 views

Translation of Romans 5:12

There is already a question about a possible contradiction between Romans 5:12 and 5:15, but this question focuses exclusively on the translation of 5:12 (which may inadvertently also answer the other ...
5
votes
1answer
476 views

What did 'adoption' mean to the Romans?

Romans 8 14 For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. 15 For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a ...
25
votes
8answers
950 views

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
13
votes
1answer
192 views

Is Romans 3:24-26 original to Paul?

Romans 3:23-26 (NA28, ESV): πάντες γὰρ ἥμαρτον καὶ ὑστεροῦνται τῆς δόξης τοῦ θεοῦ for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, δικαιούμενοι δωρεὰν τῇ αὐτοῦ χάριτι διὰ τῆς ...
2
votes
2answers
115 views

Is Paul saying that Jews will be saved in Romans 4:16?

So the promise is received by faith. It is given as a free gift. And we are all certain to receive it, whether or not we live according to the law of Moses, if we have faith like Abraham's. For ...
2
votes
3answers
414 views

What is the “evil” Paul keeps doing in Romans 7:19?

Paul confesses that he has the desire to do what is good, but that he cannot carry it out. Quoting NIV 1984: Romans 7:19: For what I do is not the good I want to do; no, the evil I do not want ...
5
votes
4answers
4k views

KJV Romans 12:3 according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith

In the King James Bible Romans 12:3 states ... "according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith"... Does this mean his followers were given a different "measure of faith"; that each ...
3
votes
4answers
491 views

How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
5
votes
2answers
5k views

Has the Apostle Paul ever been to Spain?

Paul expresses his intention to go to Spain in Romans 15: 24I hope to see you in passing as I go to Spain, and to be helped on my journey there by you, once I have enjoyed your company for a while....