Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?

In Romans 3:21, most English translations distinguish the two uses of νόμος (law) by capitalizing the second: Νυνὶ δὲ χωρὶς νόμου δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ πεφανέρωται μαρτυρουμένη ὑπὸ τοῦ νόμου καὶ τῶν ...
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What happens ‘by nature’ in Romans 2:14?

Romans 2:14: ὅταν γὰρ ἔθνη τὰ μὴ νόμον ἔχοντα φύσει τὰ τοῦ νόμου ποιῶσιν, οὗτοι νόμον μὴ ἔχοντες ἑαυτοῖς εἰσιν νόμος·(NA28) For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the ...
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Differences in justification method in Romans 3:30

Romans 3:30 εἴπερ εἷς ὁ θεὸς ὃς δικαιώσει περιτομὴν ἐκ πίστεως καὶ ἀκροβυστίαν διὰ τῆς πίστεως.(NA28) since God is one—who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised ...
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In Romans 1:30 what does “Inventors of evil things” imply?

The KJV renders Romans 1:30 as (for context starting verse 28): Rom 1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those ...
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What are “unnatural” relations or relations “use beyond nature”?

Romans 1:26-27 reads: For this reason God gave them over to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged the natural sexual relations for unnatural ones, and likewise the men also ...
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What does Romans 10 have to do with Deuteronomy 30?

Romans 10:6-7 But the righteousness based on faith says, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’” (that is, to bring Christ down) “or ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’” (that ...
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Does Romans 2:22 refer to temple robbery or sacrilege?

The word in question is ἱεροσυλέω, a hapax in the NT.1 It’s a compound from ἱερός (temple) and συλάω (rob), and most modern translations indicate that "rob temples" is the appropriate meaning here. ...
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Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
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Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
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Translation of Romans 5:12

There is already a question about a possible contradiction between Romans 5:12 and 5:15, but this question focuses exclusively on the translation of 5:12 (which may inadvertently also answer the other ...
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What did 'adoption' mean to the Romans?

Romans 8 14 For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. 15 For you have not received a spirit of slavery leading to fear again, but you have received a ...
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Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
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Is Romans 3:24-26 original to Paul?

Romans 3:23-26 (NA28, ESV): πάντες γὰρ ἥμαρτον καὶ ὑστεροῦνται τῆς δόξης τοῦ θεοῦ for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, δικαιούμενοι δωρεὰν τῇ αὐτοῦ χάριτι διὰ τῆς ...
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Is Paul saying that Jews will be saved in Romans 4:16?

So the promise is received by faith. It is given as a free gift. And we are all certain to receive it, whether or not we live according to the law of Moses, if we have faith like Abraham's. For ...
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What is the “evil” Paul keeps doing in Romans 7:19?

Paul confesses that he has the desire to do what is good, but that he cannot carry it out. Quoting NIV 1984: Romans 7:19: For what I do is not the good I want to do; no, the evil I do not want ...
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KJV Romans 12:3 according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith

In the King James Bible Romans 12:3 states ... "according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith"... Does this mean each of us was given a different "measure of faith"; that each was ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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Has the Apostle Paul ever been to Spain?

Paul expresses his intention to go to Spain in Romans 15: 24I hope to see you in passing as I go to Spain, and to be helped on my journey there by you, once I have enjoyed your company for a ...
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What is the meaning of Romans 2:12?

All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judge by the law. (NIV) Basically what I'm asking is: What does it mean to sin Apart from ...
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What are “works of the law”?

What is meant by the expression "the works of the law" in the following verses? Romans 3:28 For we consider that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the law Galatians 2:16 who ...
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Judgement with or without the Law [closed]

According to Rom 5:13, pre-flood humanity was not judged guilty of sin according to the Law because, “for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there ...
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Does Paul believe that God sandbagged the Jews with a law they couldn't keep?

In Galatians 3:10, Paul says: "For all who rely on works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, ‘Cursed be every one who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, and do ...
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What does Paul mean by “everything that does not come from faith is sin”?

In Romans 14 Paul says: But whoever has doubts is condemned if they eat, because their eating is not from faith; and everything that does not come from faith is sin. (Romans 14:23, NIV) What ...
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What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

Romans 1:16-17 (excerpted), ESV: For I am not ashamed of the gospel . . . For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith . . . SBLGNT: Οὐ γὰρ ἐπαισχύνομαι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ...
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Are the thoughts of the Gentiles conflicting in Romans 2:15?

Romans 2:15 NIV They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times ...
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Would the Romans have known what Paul meant by “works of the law”?

In Romans 3:20, Paul writes that no one is δικαιωθήσεται by works of the law (ἔργων νόμου). The only other place I know of the phrase in the New Testament is in Galatians. Does this phrase have use ...
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What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

SBLGNT Rom 10:10 καρδίᾳ γὰρ πιστεύεται εἰς δικαιοσύνην, στόματι δὲ ὁμολογεῖται εἰς σωτηρίαν· In most modern English translations, the grammatical subject is a generic person who believes and ...
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Why does the word “void” in Romans 3:31 mean “nullify”? [closed]

Why would footnotes pertaining to the words "make void" in this passage of Romans be understood as "nullify"? Romans 3:31, King James Bible "Authorized Version", Cambridge Edition Do we then ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?

Romans 3:4b, Paul quoting the psalm (SBLGNT): Ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου καὶ νικήσεις ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε. The Hebrew (51:4) is always translated with God as the subject - "thy ...
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Romans 5:1 and peace with God

The UBS4 reading of Romans 5:1 is: Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (emphasis added) At issue is a textual variation concerning the ...
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Why in some translations of Romans 16 there is “amen” twice in the text?

I was reading some crazy theory that New Testament was created by Romans when I stumbled upon something interesting. Author(s) of that theory pointed out that in Letter to Romans there is double ...
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Is Romans 1:17 ambiguous?

ESV: 17 For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith, as it is written, “The righteous shall live by faith.” The NIV and KJV read similarly. I have always understood the ...
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In Romans 3:26, why not translate dikaiosunēs as “justice” rather than “righteousness?”

In the following passage there are four different Greek words sharing the same root. Romans 3:23-26 (ESV) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace ...
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Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?

In Romans 9:22, the perfect middle/passive participle κατηρτισμένα could be read in one of two ways: κατηρτισμένα εἰς ἀπώλειαν Middle: 'having prepared themselves for destruction' Passive: 'having ...
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How was the Apostle Paul a Debtor to the Greeks?

Romans 1:14 I am debtor both to the Greeks, and to the Barbarians; both to the wise, and to the unwise. In what sense was Paul a debtor to these groups of people? I can't find any context in ...
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Abraham as heir of the world?

In Romans 4:13, Paul states that Abraham "received the promise that he would be heir of the world." But I can't find a direct promise to Abraham of such a thing. He is promised a great deal of ...
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What is the meaning of “heap burning coals on his head”?

Paul, in his letter to the Romans, in a longer passage entreating his readers to love one another, quotes from Proverbs 25:21-22: Romans 12:20 NIV On the contrary: "If your enemy is hungry, feed ...
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What would be a good translation of 'poiēma'?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161): For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what ...
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Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?

I asked this question at C.Se, but thought it might be more appropriate here. I recently listened to Dr. Scott Hahn's conversion testimony. One thing that really jumped out at me was that Dr. Hahn ...
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Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
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Sentence structure of Romans 12:6

Background If you read Romans 12:6 (part of a very popular passage about "spiritual gifts") from the NASB or any similar translation, you may notice something odd: a good chunk of the verse is not ...
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Are all these verbs in Rom. 8:29-30 in aorist?

Are all the high-lightened verbs in the passage below in aorist? For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn ...
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How should the prepositions in Romans 11:36 be translated?

Romans 11:36 has four propositions that provide a neat parallel structure: ὅτι ἐξ αὐτοῦ καὶ δι’ αὐτοῦ καὶ εἰς αὐτὸν τὰ πάντα· αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. The ESV translation is fairly ...
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Why did Paul collect and deliver an offering for the Jerusalem church?

Paul's collection for the Jerusalem church occupies significant portions of his letters (1 Cor 16:1–4; 2 Cor 8:1–9:15; Rom 15:14–32). It is so important to Paul he is willing to face hostility ...
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Was Jesus unaware of Joel 2:32?

Matthew records Jesus saying: Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to ...
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Romans 8:11 - present or future?

Romans 8:11 appears in the following context: 9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he ...
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What does “likewise” connect to in Romans 8:26?

I'm trying to understand what the "likewise" is referring to in Romans 8:26. Here is some surrounding context (ESV): For we know that the whole creation has been groaning together in the pains of ...
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Upon whom do we call? Reconciling OT & NT

This question was spurred on by my interaction with another related question on BHSE It appears as though two different names being called upon for Salvation; yet, there is only one whereby we may ...
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What does “freedom of the glory of the children of God” mean (Romans 8:21)?

In Romans 8:21 we read in the ESV: that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God. I could make sense of ...