The original manuscripts of the Bible had little or no punctuation. Most of the time this has little effect on the meaning but sometimes it can cause confusion.

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1answer
253 views

Is Hosea 6:1-3 a quotation?

Many translations wrap Hosea 6:1-3 in quotation marks. For instance, in the NJPS: “Come, let us turn back to the Lord: He attacked, and He can heal us; He wounded, and He can bind us up. In ...
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2answers
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Comma? “Verily I say unto thee today, …” or “Verily I say unto thee, today…”

The reading of Luke 23:43 differs depending on how we punctuate it: And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise. Or And Jesus said unto him, ...
10
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1answer
124 views

Is the Hymn To Wisdom in Job 28 a part of Job's speech?

I noticed that in the 2011 NIV, Job 28 is marked off as an interlude as does not appear in quotation marks; whereas in the 1984 NIV, the text appears in quotation marks and is considered a part of ...
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5answers
2k views

How should James 2:18 be translated?

James, when making the argument that faith without works is dead, makes this statement: James 2:18-19 (ESV) 18  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith ...
7
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1answer
444 views

To whom should we attribute John 3:16?

Who is speaking in John 3:16? Jesus or John? John 3 begins with Jesus speaking in the first person but in v. 13 there's a shift to the third person which continues until a change of scene at 3:22. ...
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0answers
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Luke 23:43: “I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise” or “I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise”? [duplicate]

Possible Duplicate: Comma? “Verily I say unto thee to day, …” or “Verily I say unto thee, to day…” Luke 23:43: “I say to you today, you will be with me ...