5
votes
1answer
111 views

Language question in Mark 15:34

In Mark 15:34, why was part of the verse left in the Aramaic language instead of being translated into English? Why, if the rest was translated, does that line remain the same? 15:34 Around three ...
10
votes
2answers
281 views

“which translated means…”

I am told that many scholars believe that the words of Jesus which we have presented to us in Greek were originally spoken in Aramaic. What confuses me then is why there are instances in the Greek ...