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3
votes
1answer
127 views

Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
7
votes
2answers
136 views

Was there any significance to the term χριστὸς in koine Greek outside of Judeo-Christian thought?

This question is motivated by a reading of John 20:31: SBLGNT ταῦτα δὲ γέγραπται ἵνα πιστεύητε ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, καὶ ἵνα πιστεύοντες ζωὴν ἔχητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ. ...
7
votes
3answers
148 views

Hebrew Text Indicative of a Local or Global Flood?

I am trying to look for hints in the text of Genesis regarding Noah's account. There has been plenty of debate on whether the flood described is local or global. The usual line of thought is that the ...
8
votes
2answers
241 views

In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise ...
4
votes
1answer
201 views

What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...