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-2
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2answers
76 views

Does 1 Corinthians 1:10-13 refer to 'cults'?

The commandment "to not let there be divisions", (1 Cor 1:10), uses the word "σχίσματα/schismata." In this context, "σχίσματα" carries with it a very negative connotation. But, our modern ...
3
votes
1answer
144 views

Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
8
votes
2answers
151 views

Was there any significance to the term χριστὸς in koine Greek outside of Judeo-Christian thought?

This question is motivated by a reading of John 20:31: SBLGNT ταῦτα δὲ γέγραπται ἵνα πιστεύητε ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, καὶ ἵνα πιστεύοντες ζωὴν ἔχητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ. ...
7
votes
3answers
155 views

Hebrew Text Indicative of a Local or Global Flood?

I am trying to look for hints in the text of Genesis regarding Noah's account. There has been plenty of debate on whether the flood described is local or global. The usual line of thought is that the ...
4
votes
1answer
213 views

What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...