The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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John 1:30 - What is the meaning of “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ (NKJV) οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ἀνὴρ ...
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John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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John 1:49 - What is the basis for Nathanael's proclamation - “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!”?

In John 1:49, it is written, Nathanael answered and said to Him, “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!” (NKJV) ἀπεκρίθη Ναθαναήλ καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ Ῥαββί σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ...
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John 3:16: What does the aorist inflection of ἀγαπῶ indicate?

In John 3:16, it is written, For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (KJV) Οὕτως γὰρ ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

If μονογενὴς Θεὸς is regarded as the correct reading, then, what would it mean? θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. John 1:18 ...
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What does the Latin word 'sermo' convey that 'verbum' does not in John 17:17 and John 1:1?

Augustine spoke of Latin MSS (copies of scriptures in Latin) that has 'sermo' instead of 'verbum' in John 17:17 and John 1:1 in his Tractate 108: Finally, He proceeds, and doing so fails not to ...
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In the time of Jesus, were the Jewish authorities allowed to execute?

In the gospel accounts of the trial of Jesus we learn that the Jewish authorities could not sentence anyone to death: Pilate said, “Take him yourselves and judge him by your own law.” “But we ...
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112 views

According to the Gospel of John, was Jesus always known as the Messiah?

The first mention to the title of Messiah (or Christ) in the Gospel of John is from Andrew testifying to Peter right after he met Jesus. John 1:41 He first found his own brother Simon, and said to ...
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92 views

Holy Spirit and the forgiving of sins: Who is the subject in John 20:23?

John 20:22-23 KJVS And when he had said this, he breathed on them , and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ...
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189 views

What did Jesus mean in John 6:26?

Jesus answered them and said, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled. (John 6:26, KJV) When Jesus says ...
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Why did the Samaritans worship God in Mount Gerissim rather than Jerusalem?

In John chapter 4, Jesus has a discussion with a woman of Samaria: The woman said to him, “Sir, I perceive that you are a prophet. Our fathers worshiped on this mountain, but you say that in ...
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313 views

Night is coming, when no one can work

What work is impossible to do in the 'night'? Jesus stated that night is coming, when no one can work. (John 9:4, ESV) The immediate context is that Jesus is healing a blind person. The first ...
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Reconciling the accounts of the calling of Simon Peter

How do you reconcile the two accounts of Jesus calling Peter? (Matt 4:18-19 and John 1:35-42) In the Matthew passage, Peter and Andrew are together fishing. In the John passage, Andrew was with John ...
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62 views

What is the 'law' in John 19:7

In John 19:7 it says, 7 The Jews answered him, “We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has made himself the Son of God.” What is the law that they are speaking of ...
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741 views

Eat my flesh and drink my blood [duplicate]

Jesus says in John 6 53 Jesus said to them, “Very truly I tell you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. 54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks ...
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I will raise you up at the last day

In many verses in John 6, Jesus says "I will raise them up at the last day". Does that mean to literally "revived" the ones who ate his body and drank his blood? Or what does it mean? Thanks!
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Why was Barabbas in prison?

It seems that there are varying accounts of the problems with Barabbas. John 18:40 Then they all cried again, saying, “Not this Man, but Barabbas!” Now Barabbas was a robber. Another in Mark: ...
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What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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Why do the apostles suggest that the blind man could have sinned before his birth in John 9:2?

In John 9, upon seeing the man born blind, his disciples ask Jesus, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”(ESV) Was it a widely held belief among first century ...
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371 views

Whose voice is it in Revelation 4:1? (Inconsistent red letter usage)

The first voice, described in Revelation 1:10-11 is heard (and written in red). Then John turns to see who or what is speaking, and sees what is described as Jesus. The words spoken by Jesus (verses ...
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John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?

In John 15 Jesus uses an example from agriculture to illustrate the relationship between Himself and His disciples: ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ἄμπελος ὑμεῖς τὰ κλήματα ὁ μένων ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ οὗτος φέρει ...
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Is John 7:53-8:11 original to John's gospel?

I've read several recent commentaries on John 8 and all agree that the story of the woman caught in adultery almost certainly wasn't there in the original manuscript. Is it original?
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Why did Jesus tell Mary not to hold onto Him?

John 20:17a: Jesus said, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father." Why did Jesus tell Mary not to "hold on to" Him? Presumably it was not a problem with touching, since ...
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Why is the blind man in John 9 sent to the pool that means “sent”?

In John 9, Jesus performs the miracle of healing the blind man in a rather unorthodox manner. He first creates some mud or clay out of the dirt and his saliva, then he "anoints" the man's eyes, and ...
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The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
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Where in the torah is, "You people are Elohim”? [duplicate]

In the Christian bible, in John 10:34 Yeshua is quoted: In answer, Yeshua said, "Is there not a saying in your Torah, I have said, 'You people are Elohim [the gods]'"? What is the chapter ...
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John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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Why do the Jews in John 8:33 say that they have never been enslaved?

ESV: 33 They answered him, “We are offspring of Abraham and have never been enslaved to anyone. How is it that you say, ‘You will become free’?” SBLGNT: 33 ἀπεκρίθησαν πρὸς αὐτόν· Σπέρμα ...
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323 views

Does Spiritual blindness mean not knowing God's Word?

What does this verse mean? Jesus said, "If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin; but now that you claim you can see, your guilt remains." (John 9:41, NIV) Does it imply that ...
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95 views

What is the nature of the “last day” in John's gospel (John 6)? [duplicate]

In reference to John 6 and other similiar verses: 6:39 — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the ...
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Why is the greater love not to lay down one's life for one's *enemies*?

How are we to reconcile the following verses? Jn 15:13: Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends. Mt 5:44,46-47: But I tell you, love your enemies and ...
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866 views

Why do many chinese Bibles translate “Logos” in John 1:1 as 道 (Dao)?

道(Dao) is the concept which the entire Dao De Jing seeks to expound upon and discuss. Dao De Jing is the central text of Daoist philosophy. I don't know how to define "dao" beyond an extremely ...
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Was the Beloved Disciple the author of the Fourth Gospel?

One very common interpretation of the Gospel of John is that the Beloved Disciple was the author of the book. (Presumably, he was interested in obscuring his identity for some reason.) But other ...
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In the New Testament, What is the Origin of “Believe In” and “Believe Into”?

Is there any Extra-Biblical source, (in Classical Greek, or Semitic sources), or a syntactical rule, behind the construction: ["πιστεύων ἐν" and "πιστεύων εἰς" + "Some Leader"]* — Or, is this ...
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435 views

What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ...
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Proper translation of John 1:1

Is there any particular reason why "kai Theós ēn ho Lógos" is translated "and the Word was God" and not "and God was the Word"?
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Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying “I am he”?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
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What are the translations of the Greek word “monogenes” in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word "monogenes" in Ancient Versions? Is it "only" or "only-begotten"? Latin Coptic Syriac Georgian etc. The following Bible verses have "monogenes" in it: ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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What does it mean to convict the world concerning righteousness?

In John 16:8-11, we read (emphasis mine): When he comes, he will convict the world of guilt in regard to sin and righteousness and judgment: in regard to sin, because men do not believe in me; in ...
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Who was the Beloved Disciple?

According to Wikipedia: The Gospel [of John]'s authorship is anonymous. Its Chapter 21 states it derives from the testimony of the 'disciple whom Jesus loved.' Along with Peter, the unnamed ...
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What are possible historical interpretations of John 1:1?

This question is inspired by a question about the proper translation of John 1:1.1 There are lengthy debates on how to translate the Johanine prologue properly.2 This is not about that debate. Based ...
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689 views

What might “on the third day” stand for in John 2:1?

John 2 (Amplified Bible): 1 On the third day there was a wedding at Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 Jesus also was invited with His disciples to the wedding. I have ...
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80 views

“for my thirst they gave me sour wine” and anything else?

He said, "I thirst". (John 19:28) They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me sour wine to drink. (Psalm 69:21) So, now John compares "I thirst" with Psalm, so now my doubt ...
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How should we understand the “Cleansing of the Temple”?

As a preface, I was talking with some good friends last night and this passage came up. On of my friends contributed an interpretation that made my blood boil. He was clearly wrong and clearly ...
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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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How can John 3:13-14 be reconciled with what happened to Enoch, Elijah and Jesus?

While at least two people didn't die, Jesus spoke of only the Son of man ascending into heaven. Jesus next said the Son of man would need to be lifted up. John 3:13-14 (KJV) (Jesus said) “And ...
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Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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521 views

In John 21:7, is Peter naked, and does he put on a coat before diving into the water?

John 21:7 reads SBL GNT λέγει οὖν ὁ μαθητὴς ἐκεῖνος ὃν ἠγάπα ὁ Ἰησοῦς τῷ Πέτρῳ· Ὁ κύριός ἐστιν. Σίμων οὖν Πέτρος, ἀκούσας ὅτι ὁ κύριός ἐστιν, τὸν ἐπενδύτην διεζώσατο, ἦν γὰρ γυμνός, καὶ ...