The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ...
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“A god” or “God” in John 1:1?

John 1:1 (NWT): In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This translation, the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation is, I think, unique in using ...
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1answer
553 views

Proper translation of John 1:1

Is there any particular reason why "kai Theós ēn ho Lógos" is translated "and the Word was God" and not "and God was the Word"?
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Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying “I am he”?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
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What are the translations of the Greek word “monogenes” in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word "monogenes" in Ancient Versions? Is it "only" or "only-begotten"? Latin Coptic Syriac Georgian etc. The following Bible verses have "monogenes" in it: ...
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2answers
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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What does it mean to convict the world concerning righteousness?

In John 16:8-11, we read (emphasis mine): When he comes, he will convict the world of guilt in regard to sin and righteousness and judgment: in regard to sin, because men do not believe in me; in ...
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Who was the Beloved Disciple?

According to Wikipedia: The Gospel [of John]'s authorship is anonymous. Its Chapter 21 states it derives from the testimony of the 'disciple whom Jesus loved.' Along with Peter, the unnamed ...
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What are possible historical interpretations of John 1:1?

This question is inspired by a question about the proper translation of John 1:1.1 There are lengthy debates on how to translate the Johanine prologue properly.2 This is not about that debate. Based ...
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2answers
529 views

What might “on the third day” stand for in John 2:1?

John 2 (Amplified Bible): 1 On the third day there was a wedding at Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 Jesus also was invited with His disciples to the wedding. I have ...
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1answer
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“for my thirst they gave me sour wine” and anything else?

He said, "I thirst". (John 19:28) They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me sour wine to drink. (Psalm 69:21) So, now John compares "I thirst" with Psalm, so now my doubt ...
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How should we understand the “Cleansing of the Temple”?

As a preface, I was talking with some good friends last night and this passage came up. On of my friends contributed an interpretation that made my blood boil. He was clearly wrong and clearly ...
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0answers
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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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3answers
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How can John 3:13-14 be reconciled with what happened to Enoch, Elijah and Jesus?

While at least two people didn't die, Jesus spoke of only the Son of man ascending into heaven. Jesus next said the Son of man would need to be lifted up. John 3:13-14 (KJV) (Jesus said) “And ...
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0answers
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Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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In John 21:7, is Peter naked, and does he put on a coat before diving into the water?

John 21:7 reads SBL GNT λέγει οὖν ὁ μαθητὴς ἐκεῖνος ὃν ἠγάπα ὁ Ἰησοῦς τῷ Πέτρῳ· Ὁ κύριός ἐστιν. Σίμων οὖν Πέτρος, ἀκούσας ὅτι ὁ κύριός ἐστιν, τὸν ἐπενδύτην διεζώσατο, ἦν γὰρ γυμνός, καὶ ...
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1answer
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John: A lack of “wisdom” in Wisdom literature?

In a series of lecture videos on The Gospel of John, Ben Witherington III proposes to treat the gospel along the lines of wisdom literature. He says: It’s my view that one of the things that makes ...
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What significance does John perceive in the piercing of Christ's side and the flow of blood and water?

Both the piercing of Christ side and the flow of blood and water (John 19:34) are unique to John’s gospel and it’s clear from the testimony which follows (19:35) he sees in them great deal of ...
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Jesus is both the good shepherd and the gate - Is it the same parable or two different?

In John 10 Jesus use two images. First he is the gate for the sheep. John 10:7-10 (NIV): Therefore Jesus said again, “Very truly I tell you, I am the gate for the sheep. All who have come ...
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2answers
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What is “that day” in John 14:20?

What is "that day" in John 14:20: At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you. ἐν ἐκείνῃ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ γνώσεσθε ὑμεῖς ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρί μου καὶ ὑμεῖς ἐν ἐμοὶ ...
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What does it mean to be “born of water”?

In John 3:5, Jesus tells Nicodemus that to enter the kingdom one must be "born of water and the Spirit". How is this phrase understood? Is it a single construct (i.e. one birth of both water and ...
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1answer
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Are there any clues as to the nature of the man's blindness in John 9?

This weekend I heard somebody build a case for a theological position based in part of the kind of healing given to the blind man in John 9. [John 9:1, NET] Now as Jesus was passing by, he saw a ...
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In the Gospel of John, why does Jesus say (four times), “I will raise him up at the last day”?

It's obviously significant since he repeated it four times, but what actually is the significance of the phrase? The phrase is translated from the Greek ἀναστήσω αὐτὸ (ἐν) τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ which ...
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1answer
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Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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1answer
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Does the Greek of John 20:28 address two persons or one?

I don't know Greek and even less about rules of Greek grammar. Can somebody please help me by reviewing a statement written by a popular Unitarian? Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my ...
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What is John 15:10 really saying?

John 15:10 (ESV): If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love, just as I have kept my Father's commandments and abide in his love. I have been looking at this verse for more then a week ...
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In John 14:2, what is Jesus' Father's house?

In John 14:2, Jesus tells his disciples: In my Father’s house are many rooms; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you. (NIV) What is Jesus referring ...
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John 16:12 - What were the “many things”?

In John 16:12, it is written, I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear [them] now. Ἕτι πολλὰ ἔχω λέγειν ὑμῖν ἀλλ᾽ οὐ δύνασθε βαστάζειν ἄρτι (Textus Receptus, 1550) Does ...
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What does “Grace upon grace” mean?

For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. (John 1:16, ESV) I am curious as to the meaning of "grace upon grace." I have read this as "grace for grace" in other bible ...
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1answer
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Was John the Baptist a member of the Essene community at Qumran?

This paper by Alan Farnes is one of many that have identified John’s appropriation of Isaiah 40:3 as reminiscent of the Qumran documents (a.k.a. Dead Sea Scrolls): John 1:23 (ESV) He said, “I am ...
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Question regarding John 12:32 [duplicate]

In John 12:32 (ESV) Jesus says, And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people (πάντας, pantas) to myself. I made the following statement to someone who is seeking to qualify ...
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2answers
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What is the precedent for using water as a symbol for God's Spirit in John 3:5?

When considering John 3:5, many interpret the passage as involving a hendiadys where "born of water and the Spirit" does not refer to two births, but instead sees water as a symbol for God's Spirit. ...
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What is the meaning of John 4:24?

See this question on Christianity.SE for some background. I am trying to understand how the bible uses the word spirit in a few locations as it relates to God and angels. John 4:24 (KJV) God is ...
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Why would Jesus ask, “the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?”

Jesus, while being arrested in the garden, says “the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?” He's having Peter take his sword back to the sheath, but why would Jesus ask that? ...
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1answer
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Could the Egerton Gospel be related to Q?

The so-called Egerton Gospel contains only a few verses of some very early and previously unknown "Jesus text". One major criticism of Q is that it requires a completely unattested but ...
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1answer
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Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
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1answer
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John 14:14 in P75

I apologize if this is the wrong place to ask, but, I understand that P75 and P66 are the oldest attestations of the word me in John 14:14: "If you ask me for anything in my name, I will do it" NIV ...
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2answers
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John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?

In John 1:16, it is written, And we all received from his fullness, and grace in place of grace. καὶ ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος What is "the ...
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Does John 12:31 refer to the event in Revelation 12:9?

What is the meaning of Satan being "cast out" in the following verse? John 12:31 (KJV) 31 Now judgment is upon this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out (ἐκβληθήσεται ἔξω). ...
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1answer
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Did the sister of Lazarus anoint Jesus with perfume once, or twice?

I am not re-asking this question or this question, which concern the absolute number of times Jesus was anointed with perfume. I'm asking about a confusing fact from the Gospel of John, by itself, ...
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Did Satan father Cain?

In John 8:44 (NIV) when Jesus speaks to the non-believers, it is written, You belong to your father, the Devil, and you want to carry out your father's desire. He was a murderer from the ...
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*Two* miraculous catches of fish in John 21 and significance?

In John 21, Jesus tells the disciples to throw their nets on the "right side of the boat" (verse 6) which enables the second miraculous catch of fish in Jesus' ministry, the catching of 153 fish. ...
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1answer
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Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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Why is the dividing of clothes considered the fulfillment of scripture?

In John 19:24 it's written: “Let’s not tear it,” they said to one another. “Let’s decide by lot who will get it.” This happened that the scripture might be fulfilled that said, “They ...
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In John 18, who was high priest at the time of Jesus' arrest?

First the text in John 18 (NIV) seems to make clear that Caiaphas was high priest: 18:13 They bound him and brought him first to Annas, who was the father-in-law of Caiaphas, the high priest that ...
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1answer
474 views

What is the cause of the “greater sin” in John 19:11?

In Jesus’ conversation with Pilate in John 19:11, responding to his question, “Don’t you know that I have the authority….to crucify you?” Jesus answers: “You would have no authority over me at all ...
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The word 'believe' in John 3:15-16

Does the word 'believe' in John 3:15-16 mean to believe in Jesus as the Son of God, or to believe in the message of Jesus: 15that whoever believes in him may have eternal life. 16“For God so ...
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2answers
222 views

Who said “of them which thou gavest me have I lost none”?

In John 18:9 Jesus (or John) says: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none. This apparently alludes to the saying which Jesus pronounced in ...
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2answers
331 views

John 14:2, why “dwelling places” in NABRE

Two translations of John 14:2. In my Father’s house there are many dwelling places. If there were not, would I have told you that I am going to prepare a place for you? (NABRE) In my ...
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2answers
116 views

Jesus is the Bread of life

I have read chapter 6 of the Gospel of John, regarding bread of life and eating of His flesh. Can you help me with what the proper interpretation should be?. John 6:51 (ESV) "I am the living ...