The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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Does God really hate some people (Ps 11:5), even though he loves the whole world (John 3:16)?

From John 3:16, we know that God loves the world. 16 "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life." (John 3:16,...
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105 views

Gal 5:18 vs John 3:16

Galations 5:18-21 states But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law. Now the works of the flesh are obvious: sexual immorality, impurity, depravity, idolatry, sorcery, hostilities,...
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223 views

What is the relationship between light and life in John 1:4b

As per the title, what is the relationship between life (zoe) and light (phos) in John 1:4b? Are we to understand zoe and phos as being related to egeneto/gegonen in v3 eg. That life was [the ...
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John 1:1 Which is correct in the translating of the wording θεὸς ἦν, was God, or was with God? [duplicate]

Most translations translate, θεὸς ἦν, as "was God" Yet the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures translate it as "was 'a' god". Indicating their lack of belief in the Trinity. The NET bible ...
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83 views

Is there precedent (perhaps in Jewish tradition) for the usage of “Rabboni,” which is solely found consistently in John 10:26?

John 10:26 New International Version Jesus said to her, "Mary." She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, "Rabboni!" (which means "Teacher"). New Living Translation "Mary!" Jesus ...
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In John 14:9, what is the meaning of the phrase “He who has seen me has seen the Father”?

In John 14:9, it is written, Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, ...
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126 views

Was there falsehood before Jesus?

I've mused on this for a while now and asked around a bit, but haven't got an answer (that makes sense to me) as yet. I wonder what you all here think. John 1:17: NIV: For the law was given ...
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86 views

In John 8:31 in what sense did the people believe in Jesus?

Did they just believe in Him enough to listen to Him for awhile but really want to kill Him because there is no place in them for his word as in verse John 8:37? Are these people the ones who didn't ...
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76 views

Does John 21:24-25 indicate John didn't write this Gospel?

The below 2 verses in the Gospel of John seem to indicate that "John" was not the true author of this Gospel. This intertextual proof seems to indicate that it was him because of the usage of ...
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132 views

Who is Jesus addressing in John 13:27?

Is Jesus directing His words towards (a) Judas, (b) Satan, or (c) both? How can we draw a definite conclusion here? John 13:21-30 ESV 21 After saying these things, Jesus was troubled in his ...
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199 views

John 6:45 - What is the meaning of «διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ»?

In John 6:45, it is written, ἔστιν γεγραμμένον ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Καὶ ἔσονται πάντες διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ πᾶς οὖν ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς με TR, 1550 The Lord Jesus Christ ...
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82 views

When is the “last day” that is referred to in the book of John?

When is the "last day" that is referred to in the book of John? The Rapture? The Second Coming? A series of "last days'? John 6:39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of ...
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3answers
471 views

John 8:57 and the age of Jesus, before his crucifixion

I was doing some reading in the Book "Ante Nicene Fathers" in Irenaeus' "Against Heresies" Book 2 Chapter 22 (book II chapter XXII) Irenaeus quoted John 8:57, in his argument to the Valentinens that ...
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1answer
101 views

Comparing Matt 18:15-20 with Jn 20:21-23

Is there a legitimate contextual comparison between what Jesus teaches in Matthew 18:15-20 (certain disciplinary functions working in an assembly of people in God's name) and the text in John 20:21-23?...
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2answers
169 views

John 3:6 - What is the meaning of the phrase “That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.”?

In John 3:6, it is written, That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (NKJV) τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τῆς σαρκὸς σάρξ ἐστιν καὶ τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ ...
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John 1:49 - What is the basis for Nathanael's proclamation - “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!”?

In John 1:49, it is written, Nathanael answered and said to Him, “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!” (NKJV) ἀπεκρίθη Ναθαναήλ καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ Ῥαββί σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ...
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130 views

John 1:30 - What is the meaning of “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ (NKJV) οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ἀνὴρ ...
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1answer
90 views

John 3:16: What does the aorist inflection of ἀγαπῶ indicate?

In John 3:16, it is written, For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (KJV) Οὕτως γὰρ ...
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4answers
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What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
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Is there an allusion to Psalm 22 in John 19:30, ‘It is finished’?

The allusions to Psalm 22 in the Gospel accounts of Jesus' crucifixion are well-known and have been discussed on BH.SE on several occasions. I recently ran across the claim (e.g. in a blog and a JETS ...
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133 views

What does the Latin word 'sermo' convey that 'verbum' does not in John 17:17 and John 1:1?

Augustine spoke of Latin MSS (copies of scriptures in Latin) that has 'sermo' instead of 'verbum' in John 17:17 and John 1:1 in his Tractate 108: Finally, He proceeds, and doing so fails not to ...
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What are the conditions for ongoing possession of eternal life in John 5:24?

Exegetically, in John 5:24, is ongoing possession of "eternal life" conditional on "hears" (once) and "believes" (once), or, do both present tense Greek verbs (participles) indicate required ongoing ...
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160 views

Multiple conflated sources or literary device in Jesus' Farewell Discourse?

In the Gospel of John, during Jesus' Farewell Discourse during his last meal with his disciples (chapters 13-17), the following statements are present in the account: Simon Peter said to him, "...
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229 views

What did Jesus mean in John 6:26?

Jesus answered them and said, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled. (John 6:26, KJV) When Jesus says "...
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63 views

What is the 'law' in John 19:7

In John 19:7 it says, 7 The Jews answered him, “We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has made himself the Son of God.” What is the law that they are speaking of ...
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378 views

Night is coming, when no one can work

What work is impossible to do in the 'night'? Jesus stated that night is coming, when no one can work. (John 9:4, ESV) The immediate context is that Jesus is healing a blind person. The first ...
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Does John 14:16 cancel the Trinity?

I have come by a verse from Gospel of John as: John 14:16 "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever--" I looked into its explanations ...
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John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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What does “spirit” mean in John 3:6?

What does "spirit" mean in John 3:6 (in bold)? Is it referring to the soul? John 3:6 (ESV) That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Here'...
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1answer
146 views

Why do the apostles suggest that the blind man could have sinned before his birth in John 9:2?

In John 9, upon seeing the man born blind, his disciples ask Jesus, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”(ESV) Was it a widely held belief among first century ...
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242 views

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic

The dispensational hermeneutic has been summarized as: “Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures,” declared ...
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113 views

John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?

In John 15 Jesus uses an example from agriculture to illustrate the relationship between Himself and His disciples: ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ἄμπελος ὑμεῖς τὰ κλήματα ὁ μένων ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ οὗτος φέρει ...
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117 views

According to the Gospel of John, was Jesus always known as the Messiah?

The first mention to the title of Messiah (or Christ) in the Gospel of John is from Andrew testifying to Peter right after he met Jesus. John 1:41 He first found his own brother Simon, and said to ...
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417 views

Whose voice is it in Revelation 4:1? (Inconsistent red letter usage)

The first voice, described in Revelation 1:10-11 is heard (and written in red). Then John turns to see who or what is speaking, and sees what is described as Jesus. The words spoken by Jesus (verses 1:...
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85 views

Where in the torah is, "You people are Elohim”? [duplicate]

In the Christian bible, in John 10:34 Yeshua is quoted: In answer, Yeshua said, "Is there not a saying in your Torah, I have said, 'You people are Elohim [the gods]'"? What is the chapter ...
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1answer
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The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
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John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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1answer
98 views

Holy Spirit and the forgiving of sins: Who is the subject in John 20:23?

John 20:22-23 KJVS And when he had said this, he breathed on them , and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ...
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100 views

What is the nature of the “last day” in John's gospel (John 6)? [duplicate]

In reference to John 6 and other similiar verses: 6:39 — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the ...
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Why is the greater love not to lay down one's life for one's *enemies*?

How are we to reconcile the following verses? Jn 15:13: Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends. Mt 5:44,46-47: But I tell you, love your enemies and ...
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104 views

In the New Testament, What is the Origin of “Believe In” and “Believe Into”?

Is there any Extra-Biblical source, (in Classical Greek, or Semitic sources), or a syntactical rule, behind the construction: ["πιστεύων ἐν" and "πιστεύων εἰς" + "Some Leader"]* — Or, is this ...
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Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20

Being the Easter season I was reading this section a couple weeks ago and noticed something. I'm not sure if the passage is saying Jesus had actual holes or marks in his hands and/or side. All I can ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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1answer
84 views

“for my thirst they gave me sour wine” and anything else?

He said, "I thirst". (John 19:28) They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me sour wine to drink. (Psalm 69:21) So, now John compares "I thirst" with Psalm, so now my doubt is, ...
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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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2answers
294 views

What are possible historical interpretations of John 1:1?

This question is inspired by a question about the proper translation of John 1:1.1 There are lengthy debates on how to translate the Johanine prologue properly.2 This is not about that debate. Based ...
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John: A lack of “wisdom” in Wisdom literature?

In a series of lecture videos on The Gospel of John, Ben Witherington III proposes to treat the gospel along the lines of wisdom literature. He says: It’s my view that one of the things that makes ...
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Why does Jesus tell the Samaritan woman to “Go, call your husband”?

When the Samaritan woman finally accepts Jesus' offer of living water, he says to her: "Go, call your husband and come here." (John 4:16) Why doesn't Jesus just give her his living water? The new ...