The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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John 6:45 - What is the meaning of «διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ»?

In John 6:45, it is written, ἔστιν γεγραμμένον ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Καὶ ἔσονται πάντες διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ πᾶς οὖν ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς με TR, 1550 The Lord Jesus Christ ...
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82 views

When is the “last day” that is referred to in the book of John?

When is the "last day" that is referred to in the book of John? The Rapture? The Second Coming? A series of "last days'? John 6:39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of ...
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445 views

John 8:57 and the age of Jesus, before his crucifixion

I was doing some reading in the Book "Ante Nicene Fathers" in Irenaeus' "Against Heresies" Book 2 Chapter 22 (book II chapter XXII) Irenaeus quoted John 8:57, in his argument to the Valentinens that ...
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100 views

Comparing Matt 18:15-20 with Jn 20:21-23

Is there a legitimate contextual comparison between what Jesus teaches in Matthew 18:15-20 (certain disciplinary functions working in an assembly of people in God's name) and the text in John ...
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156 views

John 3:6 - What is the meaning of the phrase “That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.”?

In John 3:6, it is written, That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (NKJV) τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τῆς σαρκὸς σάρξ ἐστιν καὶ τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ ...
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John 1:49 - What is the basis for Nathanael's proclamation - “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!”?

In John 1:49, it is written, Nathanael answered and said to Him, “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!” (NKJV) ἀπεκρίθη Ναθαναήλ καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ Ῥαββί σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ...
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John 1:30 - What is the meaning of “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ (NKJV) οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ἀνὴρ ...
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86 views

John 3:16: What does the aorist inflection of ἀγαπῶ indicate?

In John 3:16, it is written, For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (KJV) Οὕτως γὰρ ...
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213 views

What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
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281 views

Is there an allusion to Psalm 22 in John 19:30, ‘It is finished’?

The allusions to Psalm 22 in the Gospel accounts of Jesus' crucifixion are well-known and have been discussed on BH.SE on several occasions. I recently ran across the claim (e.g. in a blog and a JETS ...
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132 views

What does the Latin word 'sermo' convey that 'verbum' does not in John 17:17 and John 1:1?

Augustine spoke of Latin MSS (copies of scriptures in Latin) that has 'sermo' instead of 'verbum' in John 17:17 and John 1:1 in his Tractate 108: Finally, He proceeds, and doing so fails not to ...
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152 views

What are the conditions for ongoing possession of eternal life in John 5:24?

Exegetically, in John 5:24, is ongoing possession of "eternal life" conditional on "hears" (once) and "believes" (once), or, do both present tense Greek verbs (participles) indicate required ongoing ...
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157 views

Multiple conflated sources or literary device in Jesus' Farewell Discourse?

In the Gospel of John, during Jesus' Farewell Discourse during his last meal with his disciples (chapters 13-17), the following statements are present in the account: Simon Peter said to him, ...
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210 views

What did Jesus mean in John 6:26?

Jesus answered them and said, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled. (John 6:26, KJV) When Jesus says ...
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63 views

What is the 'law' in John 19:7

In John 19:7 it says, 7 The Jews answered him, “We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has made himself the Son of God.” What is the law that they are speaking of ...
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348 views

Night is coming, when no one can work

What work is impossible to do in the 'night'? Jesus stated that night is coming, when no one can work. (John 9:4, ESV) The immediate context is that Jesus is healing a blind person. The first ...
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306 views

Does John 14:16 cancel the Trinity?

I have come by a verse from Gospel of John as: John 14:16 "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever--" I looked into its explanations ...
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415 views

John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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175 views

What does “spirit” mean in John 3:6?

What does "spirit" mean in John 3:6 (in bold)? Is it referring to the soul? John 3:6 (ESV) That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. ...
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143 views

Why do the apostles suggest that the blind man could have sinned before his birth in John 9:2?

In John 9, upon seeing the man born blind, his disciples ask Jesus, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”(ESV) Was it a widely held belief among first century ...
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190 views

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic

The dispensational hermeneutic has been summarized as: “Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures,” declared ...
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109 views

John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?

In John 15 Jesus uses an example from agriculture to illustrate the relationship between Himself and His disciples: ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ἄμπελος ὑμεῖς τὰ κλήματα ὁ μένων ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ οὗτος φέρει ...
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116 views

According to the Gospel of John, was Jesus always known as the Messiah?

The first mention to the title of Messiah (or Christ) in the Gospel of John is from Andrew testifying to Peter right after he met Jesus. John 1:41 He first found his own brother Simon, and said to ...
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Whose voice is it in Revelation 4:1? (Inconsistent red letter usage)

The first voice, described in Revelation 1:10-11 is heard (and written in red). Then John turns to see who or what is speaking, and sees what is described as Jesus. The words spoken by Jesus (verses ...
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Where in the torah is, "You people are Elohim”? [duplicate]

In the Christian bible, in John 10:34 Yeshua is quoted: In answer, Yeshua said, "Is there not a saying in your Torah, I have said, 'You people are Elohim [the gods]'"? What is the chapter ...
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The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
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John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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96 views

Holy Spirit and the forgiving of sins: Who is the subject in John 20:23?

John 20:22-23 KJVS And when he had said this, he breathed on them , and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ...
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98 views

What is the nature of the “last day” in John's gospel (John 6)? [duplicate]

In reference to John 6 and other similiar verses: 6:39 — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the ...
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Why is the greater love not to lay down one's life for one's *enemies*?

How are we to reconcile the following verses? Jn 15:13: Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends. Mt 5:44,46-47: But I tell you, love your enemies and ...