The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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At the last day

When Jesus spoke of the resurrection in John 6:39,40,44,54 he said the resurrection would occur "at" the last day. Is there any significance to the use of the word at rather than the word on.
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Jewish Captivity [duplicate]

Is John forgetting the Jewish captivity in Babylon? John 8:33 KJV They answered him, We be Abraham's seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be made free?
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449 views

Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8

John 7:8: "...You go to the festival. I am not[a] going up to this festival, because my time has not yet fully come." The all important footnote: [a] John 7:8 Some manuscripts not yet It ...
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1answer
217 views

The value of the 153 large fish in John 21:11?

I have often wondered if the large catch of fish in John 21:11 just prior to Jesus' intimate discussion with Peter might have been a "test" or "challenge" to Peter as Jesus urged him to feed and tend ...
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Did Satan father Cain?

In John 8:44 (NIV) when Jesus speaks to the non-believers, it is written, You belong to your father, the Devil, and you want to carry out your father's desire. He was a murderer from the ...
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How can Jesus say “My Father is working until now” in John 5:16,17 if God rested on the 7th day?

John 5:16,17 (ESV) And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath. But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am ...
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1answer
115 views

Is it likely that there is an intentional relationship between ἐγένετο in Jn 1:3 and Jn 1:6?

The Gk word ἐγένετο (from γίγνομαι) can mean many things: to come into being (to be born or to be produced), to take place, to become (one of ...), etc. In the beginning of John's Gospel, the word is ...
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Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
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70 views

John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
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412 views

Why is the dividing of clothes considered the fulfillment of scripture?

In John 19:24 it's written: “Let’s not tear it,” they said to one another. “Let’s decide by lot who will get it.” This happened that the scripture might be fulfilled that said, “They ...
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Why do the Jews in John 8:33 say that they have never been enslaved?

ESV: 33 They answered him, “We are offspring of Abraham and have never been enslaved to anyone. How is it that you say, ‘You will become free’?” SBLGNT: 33 ἀπεκρίθησαν πρὸς αὐτόν· Σπέρμα ...
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Who is “that (the) Prophet” in John 1:21? Is “that Prophet” Muhammad, as Islam teaches?

Refer to John 1:21: 19 And this is the record of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, “Who art thou?” 20 And he confessed and denied not, but confessed, ...
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1answer
112 views

Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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Why does Jesus clear the temple so early in John's gospel?

John 2:13-22 is the story of Jesus clearing the temple. In Mark's gospel, the same thing happens in the final week before Jesus' death. What is John's purpose in including this so early in the text? ...