6
votes
1answer
94 views

What is the distinction between πολύσπλαγχνός and οἰκτίρμων in James 5:11?

In the letter of James, 5:11, the author writes: τὸ τέλος Κυρίου εἴδετε, ὅτι πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ Κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων English translations frequently seem to render the two adjectives ...
2
votes
2answers
148 views

James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
13
votes
5answers
1k views

How should James 2:18 be translated?

James, when making the argument that faith without works is dead, makes this statement: James 2:18-19 (ESV) 18  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith ...
9
votes
1answer
479 views

Justify (δικαιόω) in James 2:24, Romans 3:28

James 2:24 says: You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. Romans 3:28 says: For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. What are ...