Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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“A god” or “God” in John 1:1?

John 1:1 (NWT): In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This translation, the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation is, I think, unique in using ...
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What does “meek” mean in Matthew 5:5?

Matthew 5:5 (NIV) Blessed are the meek, for they will inherit the earth. What does "meek" mean in the original language? Is "meek" a good translation for the original Greek word?
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Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
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Was “Τετέλεσται” actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?

I've often heard some really cool explanations around the meaning for the greek word Τετέλεσται in the New Testament where Jesus said, "It is Finished". I love what I've heard, and have even preached ...
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Translation of “Hosanna” (ὡσαννά)

What does "Hosanna" (ὡσαννά) mean (as it appears in the Gospels)? What is its etymology/derivation from Hebrew/Aramaic?
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Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?

I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
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6answers
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?

I'm interested in this question because some liberal theologians insist that the Bible does not say anything about premarital sex*. To get a reasonable scope for the question, I limit this to just the ...
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How should James 2:18 be translated?

James, when making the argument that faith without works is dead, makes this statement: James 2:18-19 (ESV) 18  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith ...
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Are Andronicus and Junia(s) apostles?

Two of our most literal English translations render Romans 16:7 in remarkably different ways: NASB: Greet Andronicus and Junias, my kinsmen and my fellow prisoners, who are outstanding among the ...
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3answers
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Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity?

In Philippians 3:8, Paul uses the word σκύβαλον (skubalon), which is usually translated as "dung" , "garbage", or "rubbish". I've heard that this was considered an impolite word with much stronger ...
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Should John 1:18 read “the only begotten God”?

I was reading my New King James version of the Bible and found a footnote for this verse: John 1:18 (NKJV) No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the ...
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4answers
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Why was Barabbas in prison?

It seems that there are varying accounts of the problems with Barabbas. John 18:40 Then they all cried again, saying, “Not this Man, but Barabbas!” Now Barabbas was a robber. Another in Mark: ...
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222 views

Does baptizing come after discipling in Matthew 28:19?

Matthew 28:19 (ESV) reads: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, In the Greek, (according to Blue ...
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1answer
711 views

Definition of Greek γενεά (genea) [closed]

What is the definition of the Greek word γενεά (genea)? I have heard that it means "nation", and that it means "generation." I am wondering because I was looking at this list. It says that the work is ...
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3answers
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Comparison of English word “fool” in original Hebrew and Greek

Question is based on this comment on Christiantity SE. In the OT, the word fool is apparently used to describe atheists: The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.” Psalm 14:1 and Psalm ...
10
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3answers
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If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
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2answers
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How authentic is Codex Sinaiticus?

From what I understand, these are the best codices available. Codex Sinaiticus Codex Vaticanus Codex Alexandrinus Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus. Codex Sinaiticus is considered the only complete New ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
10
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3answers
453 views

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

John 7:15 (ESV): The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?” The footnote is: 7:15 Or this man knows his letters So there ...
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2answers
866 views

Is the Greek of “you” in Mathew 18 singular or plural and what does this say about who is granted authority?

I don't know very much Greek at all, but I'm very curious about the translation of the word "you" in Matthews gospel. In Matthew 16:19 he seems to be speaking directly to Peter when using the word ...
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Is there any research that challenges the standard definition of 'προορίζω' (predestine)? [closed]

The definition of προορίζω in the Enhanced Strong's Lexicon is: 4309 Six occurrences; AV translates as “predestinate” four times, “determine before” once, and “ordain” once. 1 to predetermine, ...
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2answers
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What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?

I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
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Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7

Luke 2:7 translates "kataluma" as "inn". But in Luke 22:11 the same word is used for what seems to be a personal residence: 11 And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith ...
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What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

Romans 1:16-17 (excerpted), ESV: For I am not ashamed of the gospel . . . For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith . . . SBLGNT: Οὐ γὰρ ἐπαισχύνομαι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ...
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Who is being “taken” in Matthew 24:40-41?

Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV) Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left. One of the interpretations ...
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3answers
375 views

What is the significance of the phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος in the Apocalypse?

The phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος occurs four times in the Textus Receptus, all in the Apocalypse as follows: Rev. 1:4: ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν ...
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Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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Misleading “but” in Matthew 5:22 KJV?

But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: ...
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Forgive us our “debts”? “sins”? “trespasses”? Which is the most accurate translation?

It seems that there are three popular versions of this passage in the Lord's prayer. "Forgive us our sins", "Forgive us our debts", and "Forgive us our trespasses". I see one version here in the ...
9
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2answers
163 views

Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
9
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1answer
305 views

Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?

I asked this question at C.Se, but thought it might be more appropriate here. I recently listened to Dr. Scott Hahn's conversion testimony. One thing that really jumped out at me was that Dr. Hahn ...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
9
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1answer
104 views

Do English Translations of the New Testament Show a Negative Bias Towards Translating 'Tradition'?

The Greek word παράδοσις (paradosis) means “tradition,” literally “the content of instruction that has been handed down” (BDAG). I’ve been told that certain translations of the New Testament only ...
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4answers
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What is the meaning of “calculate” in Revelation 13:18?

This is perhaps the most famous prophesy in popular culture: This calls for wisdom: let the one who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man, and his ...
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2answers
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Why do many chinese Bibles translate “Logos” in John 1:1 as 道 (Dao)?

道(Dao) is the concept which the entire Dao De Jing seeks to expound upon and discuss. Dao De Jing is the central text of Daoist philosophy. I don't know how to define "dao" beyond an extremely ...
9
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1answer
470 views

Justify (δικαιόω) in James 2:24, Romans 3:28

James 2:24 says: You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. Romans 3:28 says: For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. What are ...
9
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998 views

Does the adulterer in Matthew 5:32 cause the spouse to commit adultery or make her a victim of adultery?

What exactly was Jesus saying in Matthew 5:32? Matthew 5:32 (NKJV) But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and ...
9
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1answer
259 views

Can “pharmakous” mean something other than “sorceror”?

The Hebrew word כַשֵּׁף is typically translated "sorcery" in Hebrew-to-English translations. Paro had court sorcerors replicate some of God's miracles and Nebuchanezer asks his sorcerors to interpret ...
9
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1answer
383 views

Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans

What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans? How much does he treat the details of the Greek? What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
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Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

Mark 1:41 NIV: Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out his hand and touched the man. ‘I am willing,’ he said. ‘Be clean!’ [a] Many manuscripts Jesus was filled with compassion The ...
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In Romans 3:26, why not translate dikaiosunēs as “justice” rather than “righteousness?”

In the following passage there are four different Greek words sharing the same root. Romans 3:23-26 (ESV) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace ...
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“Sealed” (ἐσφραγίσθητε) in Eph. 1:13

Eph. 1:13 (NASB) says: In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation--having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise, What ...
8
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1answer
147 views

Forgiveness, yes or no?

I have been reading 1 John, and, just to quote two verses, he says; 1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason ...
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3answers
166 views

Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to ...
8
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1answer
364 views

What is the proper translation of Revelation 13:1?

I was reading Revelation 13:1 and compared how it was translated in the NASB ("And the dragon stood on the sand of the seashore") and how it was translated in the KJV ("And I stood on the sand of the ...
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What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ...
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What did Jesus mean by “be perfect” in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is ...
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Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4?

In Hebrews it talks about certain apostates that can’t be renewed to repentance because they have undergone certain things, which they have then rejected, signifying something terribly wrong and ...
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1answer
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What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I ...