Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Whose faith is the subject of Hebrews 11:11?

Πίστει καὶ αὐτὴ Σάρρα δύναμιν εἰς καταβολὴν σπέρματος ἔλαβεν καὶ παρὰ καιρὸν ἡλικίας, ἐπεὶ πιστὸν ἡγήσατο τὸν ἐπαγγειλάμενον (Hebrews 11:11, Westcott and Hort) The traditional translation of ...
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Where does “by the mercy shown to you” belong in Romans 11:31?

The translation of Romans 11:31 has me baffled. Starting with v. 30:1 ὥσπερ γὰρ ὑμεῖς ποτε ἠπειθήσατε τῷ θεῷ Just as you were then disobedient to God νῦν δὲ ἠλεήθητε τῇ τούτων ἀπειθείᾳ ...
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Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
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Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
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48 views

In Revelation 13:8, should “ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου” be translated “from” or “before” the foundation of the world?

The phrase ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου is generally translated from the foundation of the world, and is translated this way in all occurrences of the phrase in the ESV, except in Revelation 13:8: and all ...
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Does gēs in Matthew 24:30 refer to all the earth, or a particular location?

Matthew 24:30 (ESV), a part of the Olivet Discourse, reads: Then will appear in heaven the sign of the Son of Man, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man ...
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365 views

What does “belly” mean in Philippians 3:19?

Many translations of the Bible use the word "belly" in Philippians 3:19: Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set on earthly things. (ESV) ...
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120 views

What is the difference between en/eis for Pauline “Faith in Christ” phrases?

Paul has several different phrases which all translate "Faith in Christ". This question pertains to the difference in meaning for faith in Christ where the English word "in" has a direct Greek word, ...
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107 views

Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
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In Rom. 1:4, what is the meaning of the phrase πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης?

In Rom. 1:4, it is written, And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: (KJV, 1769) τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν ...
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In Hebrews 8:3, what is the translation of «ἀναγκαῖον» and «ὃ προσενέγκῃ»?

In Heb. 8:3, the Greek text states, Γʹ πᾶς γὰρ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ προσφέρειν δῶρά τε καὶ θυσίας καθίσταται ὅθεν ἀναγκαῖον ἔχειν τι καὶ τοῦτον ὃ προσενέγκῃ ἀναγκαῖον Some English translations and ...
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In 1 Corinthians 14:15, what is the difference between praying «τῷ πνεύματι» versus «τῷ νοΐ»?

In 1 Cor. 14:15, it is written, 15 What is the outcome then? I will pray with the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and I will sing with the mind also. NASB ...
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80 views

Sabbath, Sabbaths or week? Matthew 28:1

Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV): Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb. ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2, who do the “we” passages refer to?

My bible study teacher claims all the "we" passages in 1 Corinthians 2 refer to the apostles specifically, not to believers in general. The natural man is not a man without the Spirit, but a man ...
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2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
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Is “The Lord of the Sabbath” the LORD God?

The Gospel of Jesus Christ records that Jesus states He is Lord of the Sabbath: For the Son of Man is lord of the Sabbath. (Matthew 12:8 ESV) So the Son of Man is lord even of the Sabbath. ...
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In Phil. 2:10, to what or whom does the Greek word καταχθονίων refer?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:10 states, ἵνα ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ πᾶν γόνυ κάμψῃ ἐπουρανίων καὶ ἐπιγείων καὶ καταχθονίων which the King James Version (1769) translates as, That at the name of ...
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John 1:30 - What is the meaning of “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ (NKJV) οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ἀνὴρ ...
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Did the New Testament Writers Rely on the Hebrew Text?

Related: - Re. The Passover: Why do Christians Assert the Calendar Day Began at Sunset? 1. Question - a Reference Request Are there any textual evidences, (in the New Testament, and contemporary ...
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Addressing someone as “epistates” (Ἐπιστάτα)

In the New Testament the Greek word used for 'Lord' is often 'kurios' or 'Kyrie', a transliteration of Greek Κύριε (Kyrie), vocative case of Κύριος (Kyrios). I understand and believe the ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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Rev 20:7-8 Syntax: Gog and Magog in apposition to what?

Revelation of John 20:7-8 SBLGNT 7 Καὶ ὅταν τελεσθῇ τὰ χίλια ἔτη, λυθήσεται ὁ Σατανᾶς ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς αὐτοῦ, 8 καὶ ἐξελεύσεται πλανῆσαι τὰ ἔθνη τὰ ἐν ταῖς τέσσαρσι γωνίαις τῆς γῆς, τὸν Γὼγ ...
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Septuagintal Greek in the Lukan Infancy Narratives

I've been reading a number of literary/narrative studies on Luke lately and nearly all mention that after the introduction, Luke adopts a style of Greek reminiscent of the Septuagint in his telling of ...
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In the Gospels, Can “Day of:” the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?

Related: - The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom? - Was the Last Supper Actually a Passover Feast? - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation') - ...
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“I am the Christ” vs. “I am he” in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
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Is “ordination” in Leviticus 8 the underlying concept of “fulfilled” in Matthew 5:17?

Leviticus 8:22 (ESV) reads: Then he presented the other ram, the ram of ordination, and Aaron and his sons laid their hands on the head of the ram. The Hebrew word here translated "ordination" ...
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1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?

In 1 Kings 1:53, it is written, So king Solomon sent, and they brought him down from the altar. And he came and bowed himself to king Solomon: and Solomon said unto him, Go to thine house. (King ...
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In 1 Thessalonians 4:16, does «ἐν Χριστῷ» modify «οἱ νεκροὶ» or «ἀναστήσονται»?

In 1 Thes. 4:16, it is written, 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. ...
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Matthew 3:4 - does ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὐτοῦ epexegetically modify τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου?

The Greek text of Matt. 3:4: Αὐτὸς δὲ ὁ Ἰωάννης εἶχεν τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου, καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὑτοῦ ἡ δὲ τροφὴ αὐτοῦ ἦν ἀκρίδες, καὶ μέλι ἄγριον TR, 1550 Is it ...
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What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?

While translating Matthew 16 today, I ran across what the NET Bible calls a "highly elliptical expression" in verse 22: καὶ προσλαβόμενος αὐτὸν ὁ Πέτρος ἤρξατο ἐπιτιμᾶν αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἵλεώς σοι, ...
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Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
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What is the difference between the μορφῇ of God and the εἶδος of God?

who, though he was in the form [morphe] of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped (Philippians 2:6 ESV). And the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. ...
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What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?

ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, 1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881) and ...
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What is the meaning of the word τιτάνων in the LXX of 2 Sam. 5:18?

In 2 Sam. 5:18, the Hebrew text states, וּפְלִשְׁתִּים בָּאוּ וַיִּנָּטְשׁוּ בְּעֵמֶק רְפָאִים which is translated into Greek in the LXX as, καὶ οἱ ἀλλόφυλοι παραγίνονται καὶ συνέπεσαν εἰς ...
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In Luke 22:16: Does the Syntax Indicate if Jesus Was not Going to Eat THAT Passover?

Related: - Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω? - In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive? - Was the Last Supper Actually a Passover Feast? ...
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Codex 1r available with historic remarks?

Does anyone know, if Codex 1r (used by Erasmus) is available for online reading? How about history of the manuscript, what do we know about it? I'm especially interested of the Revelation part of it ...
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Ephesians 6:6-7 - Does ἐκ ψυχῆς modify «ποιοῦντες τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ» or «μετ᾽ εὐνοίας δουλεύοντες τῷ κυρίῳ»?

The Greek text of Eph. 6:6-7 according to the Textus Receptus is as follows: Ϛʹ μὴ κατ᾽ ὀφθαλμοδουλείαν ὡς ἀνθρωπάρεσκοι ἀλλ᾽ ὡς δοῦλοι τοῦ Χριστοῦ ποιοῦντες τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ ἐκ ψυχῆς Ζʹ μετ᾽ ...
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Interpreting “psyche” as “soul”

In the New Testament the Greek term "psyche" often, if not always, gets translated as "soul." Would the original author using that term have meant "psyche" like we mean it today? Or, more precisely, ...
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57 views

Any attestation of “century” as a meaning of “aion” around the time of Christ?

A professor (of Mathematics) from Greece told me the word αἰών means "century." Of course we know its derivatives (such as αἰώνιος) have a range of meaning in the New Testament and the Septuagint ...
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103 views

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual - 3ra Edición) translates: κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20 and κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día ...
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Jam. 2:7: What is the meaning of τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς?

The Greek text of Jam. 2:7 according to the Textus Receptus states, οὐκ αὐτοὶ βλασφημοῦσιν τὸ καλὸν ὄνομα τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς The Greek phrase τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς seems to modify τὸ καλὸν ...
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Jam. 5:14: Why does James write ἀλείψαντες rather than χρίσαντες?

In Jam. 5:14, it is written, ἀσθενεῖ τις ἐν ὑμῖν προσκαλεσάσθω τοὺς πρεσβυτέρους τῆς ἐκκλησίας καὶ προσευξάσθωσαν ἐπ᾽ αὐτὸν ἀλείψαντες αὐτὸν ἐλαίῳ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Why does James write ...
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John 1:25: εἶπον v. εἶπαν - which is more likely to have been written in the 1st century A.D.?

In John 1:25, the Textus Receptus has εἶπον, while the NA28 has εἶπαν. Apparently both are conjugated in the aorist tense and in the same voice (active) and number (plural). While they therefore have ...
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32 views

In Phil. 1:23, what is the significance of the second infinitive being anarthrous in the phrase «τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι»?

In Phil. 1:23, it is written, συνέχομαι γὰρ ἐκ τῶν δύο τὴν ἐπιθυμίαν ἔχων εἰς τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι πολλῷ μᾶλλον κρεῖσσον TR, 1550 What significance if any is there in the second ...
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62 views

What does the Greek word μεριμνᾶτε mean in Philippians 4:6?

The ESV translation of Philippians 4:6 reads: Do not be anxious about anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known to God. If the ...
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36 views

Ephesians 1:10 - Who or what does «τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς» refer to?

In Ephesians 1:10, it is written, εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (TR, 1550) According to my ...
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56 views

John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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63 views

Luke 17:5 - What is the meaning and significance of the phrase πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν?

The Textus Receptus of Luke 17:5 states, Καὶ εἶπον οἱ ἀπόστολοι τῷ κυρίῳ πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν What is the meaning of the phrase «πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν»? Does the phrase it imply that our faith ...
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27 views

Do the qualifications of an overseer (ἐπίσκοπος) and the Ephesians 4:11 gift of pastor/teacher make them interchangeable or just related?

Peter encourages elders in 1 Peter 5:2 to ποιμάνατε (be shepherds). Paul instructs Timothy to install elders with qualifications listed in 1 Timothy 3:2 that include διδακτικόν (apt to teach). In ...
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44 views

Did Chrysostom's Text Say a “Double Sabbath” was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question - Clarification of ...