Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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“A god” or “God” in John 1:1?

John 1:1 (NWT): In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This translation, the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation is, I think, unique in using ...
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5answers
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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5answers
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Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
2
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1answer
93 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
13
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2answers
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Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?

I'm interested in this question because some liberal theologians insist that the Bible does not say anything about premarital sex*. To get a reasonable scope for the question, I limit this to just the ...
6
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2answers
1k views

Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points ...
10
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2answers
700 views

What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?

I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
8
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3answers
1k views

What does “guardian/tutor” mean in Galatians 3:24

Galatians 3:24 reads in the ESV (and several modern translations) So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith.ESV In the KJV it reads: ...
5
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2answers
200 views

Is “puppies” a justifiable translation of κυναρίοις?

Mark 7 contains an odd little story: And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden. But ...
4
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3answers
263 views

What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?

I have a question about the context of Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56 as they relate to the buying and preparing of the burial spices for Jesus of Nazareth. Mark 16:1 (ESV) states: When the Sabbath was ...
3
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2answers
67 views

How to interpret John 2:10

King James Bible: And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now. ...
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5answers
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Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?

I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
12
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5answers
1k views

How should James 2:18 be translated?

James, when making the argument that faith without works is dead, makes this statement: James 2:18-19 (ESV) 18  But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith ...
7
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5answers
2k views

Who is being “taken” in Matthew 24:40-41?

Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV) Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left. One of the interpretations ...
10
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3answers
5k views

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
10
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3answers
6k views

Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא)? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or something else in ...
9
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2answers
1k views

Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
9
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1answer
350 views

Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans

What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans? How much does he treat the details of the Greek? What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
9
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3answers
353 views

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

John 7:15 (ESV): The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?” The footnote is: 7:15 Or this man knows his letters So there ...
7
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2answers
115 views

Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?

In Hebrews 5:7 Jesus has his 'prayer heard in what he feared' or 'heard in respect to what he feared' - 'εισακουσθεις απο της ευλαβειας'. The ESV had his prayer was heard 'because of his reverence' ...
6
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2answers
176 views

Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

In the NASB, Romans 4:25 (emphasis mine) reads: He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification. However, in the ESV (emphasis mine) it ...
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5answers
1k views

Does Paul reject the idea of celebrating holidays in Galatians?

Paul has some very strong words against the Galatians implying that they are returning to their former state: Formerly, when you did not know God, you were enslaved to those that by nature are not ...
4
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2answers
269 views

Those who believe are “especially” saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
4
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1answer
95 views

Does Mark 1:32 indicate two separate time periods?

The NET Bible reads: When it was evening, after sunset, they brought to him all who were sick and demon-possessed.—Mark 1:32 (NET) Two time references are present: "When it was evening" ...
3
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1answer
99 views

How should the phrase ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ in John 16:8 be translated?

The 1984 NIV of John 16:7b-11 reads (emphasis mine): Unless I go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. When he comes, he will convict the world of ...
3
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4answers
313 views

Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
2
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1answer
155 views

Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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1answer
347 views

What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...