The original language of the New Testament.
8
votes
4answers
1k views
Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
8
votes
4answers
555 views
What does “guardian/tutor” mean in Galatians 3:24
Galatians 3:24 reads in the ESV (and several modern translations)
So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith.ESV
In the KJV it reads:
...
17
votes
5answers
715 views
“A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
John 1:1 (NWT):
In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
This translation, the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation is, I think, unique in using ...
10
votes
3answers
2k views
Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?
Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts?
...
4
votes
2answers
463 views
Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?
Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads:
I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem,
By gazelles or by hinds of the field:
Do not wake or rouse
Love until it please!
As the NET Bible points ...
9
votes
2answers
188 views
What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?
I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
4
votes
2answers
110 views
Is “puppies” a justifiable translation of κυναρίοις?
Mark 7 contains an odd little story:
And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden. But ...
10
votes
4answers
447 views
Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?
I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
6
votes
5answers
658 views
Who is being “taken” in Matthew 24:40-41?
Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV)
Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two
women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left.
One of the interpretations ...
11
votes
2answers
1k views
Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?
I'm interested in this question because some liberal theologians insist that the Bible does not say anything about premarital sex*. To get a reasonable scope for the question, I limit this to just the ...
10
votes
2answers
220 views
Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”
In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read:
15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter,
“Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him,
“Yes, Lord; you know that ...
10
votes
2answers
1k views
Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)
What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא)? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or something else in ...
8
votes
1answer
196 views
Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans
What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans?
How much does he treat the details of the Greek?
What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
7
votes
2answers
82 views
Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?
In Hebrews 5:7 Jesus has his 'prayer heard in what he feared' or 'heard in respect to what he feared' - 'εισακουσθεις απο της ευλαβειας'.
The ESV had his prayer was heard 'because of his reverence' ...
6
votes
2answers
181 views
Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?
John 7:15 (ESV):
The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?”
The footnote is:
7:15 Or this man knows his letters
So there ...
5
votes
1answer
57 views
Does Mark 1:32 indicate two separate time periods?
The NET Bible reads:
When it was evening, after sunset, they brought to him all who were sick and demon-possessed.—Mark 1:32 (NET)
Two time references are present:
"When it was evening" ...
2
votes
1answer
79 views
Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar
All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example:
ESV:
38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
