Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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What are some examples of drug use in Paul's day that would describe what would be considered pharmakeia/sorcery as he lists it in Galatians 5:20?

In Galatians 5:20, among the deeds of the flesh, Paul lists "pharmakeia," which, as i understand, is commonly translated as sorcery or witchcraft, referring to the use or administering of drugs or ...
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In John 13:13, are the nominatives «ὁ διδάσκαλος» and «ὁ κύριος» functioning as vocatives?

In John 13:13, it is written, 13 You call me “Teacher” and “Master,” and you say rightly, for I am. ΙΓʹ ὑμεῖς φωνεῖτέ με ὁ διδάσκαλος καὶ ὁ κύριος καὶ καλῶς λέγετε εἰμὶ γάρ TR, 1550 Are the ...
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Did Chrysostom's Text Say a “Double Sabbath” was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question: Homilies on ...
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Addressing someone as “epistates” (Ἐπιστάτα)

In the New Testament the Greek word used for 'Lord' is often 'kurios' or 'Kyrie', a transliteration of Greek Κύριε (Kyrie), vocative case of Κύριος (Kyrios). I understand and believe the ...
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In 1 Timothy 1:4, why does the King James Version have “edifying” rather than “dispensation”?

The English translation of 1 Tim. 1:4 according to the King James Version states, 4 Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which ...
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237 views

In 1 Timothy 1:5, what is the meaning of «τῆς παραγγελίας»?

The Greek text of 1 Tim. 1:5 according to the Textus Receptus states, Εʹ τὸ δὲ τέλος τῆς παραγγελίας ἐστὶν ἀγάπη ἐκ καθαρᾶς καρδίας καὶ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς καὶ πίστεως ἀνυποκρίτου TR, 1550 Note: ...
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In Colossians 3:23, what is the meaning of «ἐκ ψυχῆς» and the distinction between «ποιῆτε» and «ἐργάζεσθε»?

The Greek text of Col. 3:23 according to the Textus Receptus states, ΚΓʹ καὶ πᾶν ὃ τι ἐὰν ποιῆτε ἐκ ψυχῆς ἐργάζεσθε ὡς τῷ κυρίῳ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις TR, 1550 What does «ἐκ ψυχῆς» mean in this ...
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Interpreting “psyche” as “soul”

In the New Testament the Greek term "psyche" often, if not always, gets translated as "soul." Would the original author using that term have meant "psyche" like we mean it today? Or, more precisely, ...
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Blood of God reference to Christ's deity (Act:20:28)

In Acts 20 verses 18-25, Paul addressed the Ephesian elders with a heart felt message. At verse 28 Paul seems to indicate that it was Yahweh's blood, which would specify Christ's shed blood, that ...
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Sabbath, Sabbaths or week? Matthew 28:1

Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV): Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb. ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς ...
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In Luke 23:54 - Was Jesus Entombed Right Before the Sabbath Dawn?

Related: - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation') - Re. The Passover: Why do Christians Assert the Calendar Day Began at Sunset? - Re. The Crucifixion: Possible to Correlate ...
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In John 1:30, what is the meaning of the phrase “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, 30 “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ NKJV Λʹ οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ...
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In the LXX of 2 Samuel 5:18, what is the meaning of the word «τιτάνων»?

In 2 Sam. 5:18, the Hebrew text states, יח וּפְלִשְׁתִּים בָּאוּ וַיִּנָּטְשׁוּ בְּעֵמֶק רְפָאִים which is translated into the Greek Septuagint as, ΙΗʹ καὶ οἱ ἀλλόφυλοι παραγίνονται καὶ ...
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Jerome’s translation of «κοινωνία» in the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16

In the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16, it is written, calicem benedictionis cui benedicimus nonne communicatio sanguinis Christi est et panis quem frangimus nonne participatio corporis Domini est Why ...
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244 views

Was Greek Mark's second language?

I've noted that Jesus probably spoke little Greek and did not have formal training. Similarly, Peter and John were likely not trained in Greek (see Acts 4:13). Bart Ehrman points out: [The four ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2:1, which variant is more likely: «μαρτύριον» v. «μυστήριον»?

The Greek text of 1 Cor. 2:1 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Κἀγὼ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἀδελφοί ἦλθον οὐ καθ᾽ ὑπεροχὴν λόγου ἢ σοφίας καταγγέλλων ὑμῖν τὸ μαρτύριον τοῦ θεοῦ TR, 1550 The ...
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In Luke 2:22, why does the King James Version translate «τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν» as “her purification”?

In Luke 2:22, it is written, And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; KJV, 1769 Καὶ ...
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In Genesis 2:22, what is the significance of the verb וַיִּבֶן (lemma: בָּנָה)?

The Hebrew text of Gen. 2:22 states, כב וַיִּבֶן יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהִים אֶת הַצֵּלָע אֲשֶׁר לָקַח מִן הָאָדָם לְאִשָּׁה וַיְבִאֶהָ אֶל הָאָדָם which may be translated into English as, And Yahveh ...
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In Hebrews 1:2, to what does the Greek word «αἰῶνας» refer?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ...
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In Hebrews 8:3, what is the accurate translation of «ἀναγκαῖον» and «ὃ προσενέγκῃ»?

The Greek text of Heb. 8:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, Γʹ πᾶς γὰρ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ προσφέρειν δῶρά τε καὶ θυσίας καθίσταται ὅθεν ἀναγκαῖον ἔχειν τι καὶ τοῦτον ὃ προσενέγκῃ TR, 1550 ...
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Angel or messenger?

Often, it is clear from context whether מלאך and αγγελος refer to a human messenger or an angelic messenger. For example, if a מלאך or αγγελος is sent by a human, then the messenger is likely human. ...
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In the Apocalypse, what is the significance of the phrase «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος»?

The phrase «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος» occurs four times in the Textus Receptus, all in the “Apocalypse” as follows: Rev. 1:4: «ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος» Δʹ Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ...
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In Philippians 2:25, what is the most accurate translation of «ἀπόστολον»?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:25 according to the Textus Receptus states, ΚΕʹ Ἀναγκαῖον δὲ ἡγησάμην Ἐπαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου ὑμῶν δὲ ἀπόστολον καὶ λειτουργὸν τῆς ...
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In Hebrews 1:2, what is the significance of «υἱῷ» being anarthrous?

The Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550 ...
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In Hebrews 11:17, why does the author use «προσενήνοχεν», first, and then shortly thereafter, «προσέφερεν»?

The Greek text of Heb. 11:17 according to Textus Receptus states, ΙΖʹ Πίστει προσενήνοχεν Ἀβραὰμ τὸν Ἰσαὰκ πειραζόμενος καὶ τὸν μονογενῆ προσέφερεν ὁ τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἀναδεξάμενος TR, 1550 The ...
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What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

Does the following phrase εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα refer to the will of God or the will of the devil? 2 Tim 2:26 (NA28) καὶ ἀνανήψωσιν ἐκ τῆς τοῦ διαβόλου παγίδος, ἐζωγρημένοι ὑπʼ αὐτοῦ εἰς τὸ ...
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What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
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In Hebrews 9:23, why does the author use the plural “better sacrifices” rather than the singular “better sacrifice”?

In Heb. 9:23, it is written, 23 It is necessary, therefore, the pattern indeed of the things in the heavens to be purified with these, and the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
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Meaning of ἐκ and ἐν in Galatians 3:11-12

Galatians 3:11-12 reads: 11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for “The righteous shall live by faith.” 12 But the law is not of faith, rather “The one who does ...
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Did Jesus' body decompose to any extent? [closed]

Acts 2:27 (NRSV) 27 For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One experience corruption. ὅτι οὐκ ἐγκαταλείψεις τὴν ψυχήν μου εἰς ᾅδην οὐδὲ δώσεις τὸν ὅσιόν σου ἰδεῖν ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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In 1 John 5:20-21, who does John identify as “him who is true” and “the true God”?

In 1 John 5:20-21, who does John identify as "him who is true" and "the true God"? ESV 1Jn 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him ...
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John 3:6 - What is the meaning of the phrase “That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.”?

In John 3:6, it is written, That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (NKJV) τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ τῆς σαρκὸς σάρξ ἐστιν καὶ τὸ γεγεννημένον ἐκ ...
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In John 19:25, are there three women or four women listed?

In John 19:25, the Greek text states, ΚΕʹ εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή TR, 1550 According to the ...
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
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2 Thess. 1:7-9 - could 'those' be fallen angels instead of humans?

7 and to give you who are troubled rest with us when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, 8 in flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God, and on those who do ...
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355 views

Is the 'revelation OF or FROM Jesus Christ'? (Rev 1:1)

Before we select a canned interpretive model, shouldn't we first consider what is meant by Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Rev 1:1)? Does the Greek better support "revelation OF" or "revelation FROM" Jesus ...
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829 views

Could Philippians 4:3 refer to Paul's wife?

Philippians 4:3 reads: ναὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ, γνήσιε σύζυγε*, συνλαμβάνου αὐταῖς, αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου, ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς. (...
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In Philippians 2:10, to what or whom does the Greek word καταχθονίων refer?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:10 states, ἵνα ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ πᾶν γόνυ κάμψῃ ἐπουρανίων καὶ ἐπιγείων καὶ καταχθονίων which the King James Version (1769) translates as, That at the name of ...
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80 views

If it's a mirror, what is being reflected in 1 Cor 13:12?

If we accept that Paul is speaking of a mirror in 1 Cor 13:12, as some think to be the case (1 Corinthians 13:12: "For now we see through a glass, darkly"), then what is being reflected? I ...
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54 views

How to translate and understand the syntax in Romans 12:10?

In Romans 12:10, I'm having difficulty translating the verse since it appears to lack verbs (and even subjects). Furthermore, What is the significance of «τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ» and «τῇ τιμῇ» being declined ...
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72 views

In Acts 5:3-4, did Ananias “lie to”, “fake”, “pretend” or “perjure yourself”?

In Acts 5:3-4, did Ananias "lie to", "fake" or "pretend"? Act 5:3 But Peter said, "Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back for yourself part of the ...
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Is there any distinction in the Greek between “Praying in/with the Spirit” from Ephesians 6:18 & the similar words in 1 Corinthians 14:15?

In Paul's first letter to the Corinthians Paul indicates that he prefers to pray both in (or with) the Spirit and in (or with) the mind. τί οὖν ἐστίν; προσεύξομαι τῷ πνεύματι, προσεύξομαι δὲ καὶ ...
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24k views

What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I ...
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4answers
158 views

Does Romans 4:17 speak of God calling things into existence?

Rom 4:16-17: That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring — not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who ...
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In 1 Thessalonians 4:16, does «ἐν Χριστῷ» modify «οἱ νεκροὶ» or «ἀναστήσονται»?

In 1 Thes. 4:16, it is written, 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. ...
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53 views

Question concerning those who “wash their robes” in Revelation 7

In Rev. 7:9-14, it is written, 9 After these things I looked, and behold, a great multitude which no one could count, from every nation and all tribes and peoples and tongues, standing before the ...