Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key ...
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The usage of the word “curse” in Gal 3:13

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree” (Gal 3:13 ESV) This verse has always intrigued me, ...
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Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?

In 1 Cor 14:15, does Paul say he will pray with both spirit and understanding (at the same time), or that he will pray with each (at different times)? Specifically, when Paul says he will "pray with ...
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Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
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234 views

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
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John 21:15: “do you love me more than…?”

John 21:15a reads NA28 Ὅτε οὖν ἠρίστησαν λέγει τῷ Σίμωνι Πέτρῳ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων; ESV When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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Who is “The Son” in Hebrews chapter 1: 8 ? Is He God in the strictest sense of the word, or a created being?

The New World Translation, gives us a very contrary translation of this verse, that sets the stage for this question.! It's translators have this rendering to offer as a legitimate rendering of ...
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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What did Jesus mean by “be perfect” in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is ...
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What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text?
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Does πολιτείας imply citizenship status with Israel?

ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ (Eph. 2:12 TR) Paul makes a ...
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Those who believe are “especially” saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
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What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I ...
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John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, ...
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What is the meaning of “calculate” in Revelation 13:18?

This is perhaps the most famous prophesy in popular culture: This calls for wisdom: let the one who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man, and his ...
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Does the adulterer in Matthew 5:32 cause the spouse to commit adultery or make her a victim of adultery?

What exactly was Jesus saying in Matthew 5:32? Matthew 5:32 (NKJV) But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and ...
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What is Paul “giving his body over” to in 1 Corinthians 13:3?

1 Corinthians 13:3 reads as follows in King James Bible: And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. ...
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise ...
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What is the meaning of τῆς παραγγελίας in 1 Tim. 1:5?

In 1 Timothy 1:5, the Greek text states, τὸ δὲ τέλος τῆς παραγγελίας ἐστὶν ἀγάπη ἐκ καθαρᾶς καρδίας καὶ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς καὶ πίστεως ἀνυποκρίτου I'm intentionally avoiding translating the ...
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What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
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What basis do we have for defining Sabbatismos in Hebrews 4:9?

The word, Sabbatismos occurs in the Greek NT only once. Strongest Strong's defines it as Sabbath rest; Sabbath observance. Thayer's/Strong's defines it as a Sabbath keeping. Various English ...
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Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
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What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

Romans 1:16-17 (excerpted), ESV: For I am not ashamed of the gospel . . . For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith . . . SBLGNT: Οὐ γὰρ ἐπαισχύνομαι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ...
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What's the root definition of the word “judge” in Matthew 7:1?

What is the root definition of the word judge in the below scripture? Does it correlate to the currently accepted definition of judge? Judge not, that ye be not judged. (Matthew 7:1 KJV) ...
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What is the referent for “brother” in 1 John 4:20-21?

1 John 4:20-21 20 If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? 21 And this ...
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Forgiveness, yes or no?

I have been reading 1 John, and, just to quote two verses, he says; 1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason ...
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Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

Mark 1:41 NIV: Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out his hand and touched the man. ‘I am willing,’ he said. ‘Be clean!’ [a] Many manuscripts Jesus was filled with compassion The ...
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Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
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What pronoun refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:26?

In John 14:26, English translations read, "He will teach you all things" or something similar, referring to the Holy Spirit with a masculine singular pronoun. Apparently the Greek word is "ekeinos", ...
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Why does sending Epaphroditus to the Philippian Christians make Paul less anxious?

Philippians 2:28 (NA28) reads: σπουδαιοτέρως οὖν ἔπεμψα αὐτόν, ἵνα ἰδόντες αὐτὸν πάλιν χαρῆτε κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ. I am specifically interested in the meaning of κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ, which simply ...
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Meaning of Matthew 16:28 [duplicate]

None the disciples who heard Jesus speak the words of Mat 16:28 is alive today. So what did Jesus really mean? What is it that some of them would see in their lifetime? Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell ...
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In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in ...
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NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
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Can “pharmakous” mean something other than “sorceror”?

The Hebrew word כַשֵּׁף is typically translated "sorcery" in Hebrew-to-English translations. Paro had court sorcerors replicate some of God's miracles and Nebuchanezer asks his sorcerors to interpret ...
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What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?

I have a scholarly friend who believes if you examine the meaning of the word "ekklesia" in the original Classical Greek and later in the Septuagint it had the meaning of a "meeting"(an event in time) ...
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By what Name did God reveal Himself to Abraham?

God is on several accounts called the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. (Even by Jesus himself and by his apostles he is called their God. e.g. Mk 12:26 /Acts 3:3 I quote from this answer (from ...
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What would be a good translation of 'poiēma'?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161): For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what ...
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What words existed in Greek to express the concept “eternal”?

I have heard that the Greek word aiōnios is more literally translated "age-long", the adjective form of aiōn meaning "age". Aiōnios is translated as "eternal" in most bibles. I'm thinking ...
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How to interpret John 2:10

King James Bible: And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now. ...
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Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to ...
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

I know that μονογενὴς Θεὸς is the correct text in John 1:18b but my question is that what does it mean in Christian Theology? How do we suppose to understand such divine title of God's Son? The NASB ...
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67 views

Does the Greek verb ὑπακούω generally imply faith?

I noticed the Greek verb ὑπακοῦσαι (hypakousai), a conjugation of the root verb ὑπακούω (hypakouō), is translated as "[to] answer" in Acts 12:13: Peter knocked at the outer entrance, and a servant ...
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If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...