Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual - 3ra Edición) translates: κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20 and κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día ...
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33 views

Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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60 views

Jam. 2:7: What is the meaning of τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς?

The Greek text of Jam. 2:7 according to the Textus Receptus states, οὐκ αὐτοὶ βλασφημοῦσιν τὸ καλὸν ὄνομα τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς The Greek phrase τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς seems to modify τὸ καλὸν ...
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Jam. 5:14: Why does James write ἀλείψαντες rather than χρίσαντες?

In Jam. 5:14, it is written, ἀσθενεῖ τις ἐν ὑμῖν προσκαλεσάσθω τοὺς πρεσβυτέρους τῆς ἐκκλησίας καὶ προσευξάσθωσαν ἐπ᾽ αὐτὸν ἀλείψαντες αὐτὸν ἐλαίῳ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Why does James write (...
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161 views

Clarification on the Greek pronoun allos [closed]

Calling all Greek experts! I'm particularly curious about the pronoun allos. I'm not educated enough in the nuances of Greek grammar to be able to accurately come up with an answer so I'd like to get ...
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62 views

What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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28 views

In Hebrews 8:3, what is the accurate translation of «ἀναγκαῖον» and «ὃ προσενέγκῃ»?

The Greek text of Heb. 8:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, Γʹ πᾶς γὰρ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ προσφέρειν δῶρά τε καὶ θυσίας καθίσταται ὅθεν ἀναγκαῖον ἔχειν τι καὶ τοῦτον ὃ προσενέγκῃ TR, 1550 ...
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82 views

Interpreting “psyche” as “soul”

In the New Testament the Greek term "psyche" often, if not always, gets translated as "soul." Would the original author using that term have meant "psyche" like we mean it today? Or, more precisely, ...
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80 views

2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 10:4 according to the Textus Receptus states: τὰ γὰρ ὅπλα τῆς στρατείας ἡμῶν οὐ σαρκικὰ ἀλλὰ δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ πρὸς καθαίρεσιν ὀχυρωμάτων How should we understand and ...
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1answer
44 views

Is “The Lord of the Sabbath” the LORD God?

The Gospel of Jesus Christ records that Jesus states He is Lord of the Sabbath: For the Son of Man is lord of the Sabbath. (Matthew 12:8 ESV) So the Son of Man is lord even of the Sabbath. (...
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4answers
672 views

Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?

In 1 Cor 14:15, does Paul say he will pray with both spirit and understanding (at the same time), or that he will pray with each (at different times)? Specifically, when Paul says he will "pray with ...
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3answers
526 views

What does Mark 7:19 really say?

The KJV and NASB transliterations of this verse do not seem to be 100% correct. Greek Word for word in Context "since not it enters her/he into mind/soul, rather/but, into the lower belly (...
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1answer
148 views

Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as “[his] head”?

Why does Biblehub translate κεφαλῆς in I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head" the morphology states N-GFS? Why not "[her] head"?
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406 views

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

When I look into the Hebrew text I see at least 3 different spellings of what we translate into English as day or rest or more commonly "Sabbath". So how many different words in Greek are used to ...
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152 views

Jesus said Θεέ μου before He died and Jesus said Θεόν μου after He rose. What is the difference?

Matthew (NKJV): And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?” that is, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (27:46) Matthew (USB5): περὶ δὲ ...
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369 views

What pronoun refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:26?

In John 14:26, English translations read, "He will teach you all things" or something similar, referring to the Holy Spirit with a masculine singular pronoun. Apparently the Greek word is "ekeinos", ...
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67 views

Does “sexual immorality” in Rev. 2:10 really mean idolatry?

Revelation 2:14 NASB But I have a few things against you, because you have there some who hold the teaching of Balaam, who kept teaching Balak to put a stumbling block before the sons of Israel, to ...
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83 views

In John 1:32, what is the distinction between «ὡσεὶ» (TR) and «ὡς» (NA28)?

In John 1:32, the Greek text states, ΛΒʹ καὶ ἐμαρτύρησεν Ἰωάννης λέγων ὅτι τεθέαμαι τὸ πνεῦμα καταβαῖνον ὡσεὶ περιστερὰν ἐξ οὐρανοῦ καὶ ἔμεινεν ἐπ᾽ αὐτόν TR, 1550 ΛΒʹ καὶ ἐμαρτύρησεν Ἰωάννης ...
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4answers
88 views

What are the idols and who are the little children?

The letter of 1 John comes to what seems to be an abrupt ending. Yet in the context of the entire letter is examined, the ending seems to be purposeful : Chapter 1 - Introudction My little ...
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43 views

John 1:25: εἶπον v. εἶπαν - which is more likely to have been written in the 1st century A.D.?

In John 1:25, the Textus Receptus has εἶπον, while the NA28 has εἶπαν. Apparently both are conjugated in the aorist tense and in the same voice (active) and number (plural). While they therefore have ...
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1answer
190 views

Looking for electronic copies of the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic texts, and electronic translation/analyses databases to interpret them [closed]

If this question is worded poorly or could be rephrased, please do help me know how best to ask it. I am genuinely seeking the information outlined below, but I'm new here, so please forgive me if I ...
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1answer
490 views

NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
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1answer
131 views

What is the significance of ἴσα in Phil. 2:6?

In Phil. 2:6, it is written, ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ Wiktionary lists the various declensions of the Greek adjective ἴσος. My question is, how is the word ...
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2answers
150 views

What words existed in Greek to express the concept “eternal”?

I have heard that the Greek word aiōnios is more literally translated "age-long", the adjective form of aiōn meaning "age". Aiōnios is translated as "eternal" in most bibles. I'm thinking ...
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2answers
60 views

In Acts 10:42, why does BDAG suggest a nominative argument to ὁρίζω?

In Acts 10:42, why does BDAG suggest a nominative argument to ὁρίζω?: (GNT-V) και παρηγγειλεν ημιν κηρυξαι τω λαω και διαμαρτυρασθαι οτι Aουτος TSBαυτος εστιν ο ωρισμενος υπο του θεου κριτης ...
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2answers
59 views

Did Jesus' body decompose to any extent? [closed]

Acts 2:27 (NRSV) 27 For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One experience corruption. ὅτι οὐκ ἐγκαταλείψεις τὴν ψυχήν μου εἰς ᾅδην οὐδὲ δώσεις τὸν ὅσιόν σου ἰδεῖν ...
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1answer
53 views

A manger vs The manger in Luke 2

Does the Greek specifically say "a manger" or does it say "the manger" in Luke 2:7,12,16? Wondering if it, by chance, denotes a specific manger as opposed to any manger. In other words, would the ...
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71 views

What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”

The verses say, και εγενετο φωνη προς αυτον αναστας πετρε θυσον και φαγε and became a sound/voice to him arise Peter make-sacrificial-slaughter and eat
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1answer
69 views

Does Revelation 10:11 belong in chapter 10 or chapter 11?

Does the original greek language (or other concrete evidence) provide an indication that Revelation 10:11 belongs in chapter 10, or does it it lack such an indication, such that it is ambiguous in the ...
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1answer
146 views

Why does sending Epaphroditus to the Philippian Christians make Paul less anxious?

Philippians 2:28 (NA28) reads: σπουδαιοτέρως οὖν ἔπεμψα αὐτόν, ἵνα ἰδόντες αὐτὸν πάλιν χαρῆτε κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ. I am specifically interested in the meaning of κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ, which simply ...
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35 views

Does Hebrews 2:3 exclude an apostle from writing Hebrews?

εἰ (if) γὰρ (indeed) ὁ (the) δι’ (through) ἀγγέλων (messangers) λαληθεὶς (having been spoken) λόγος (word) ἐγένετο (was) βέβαιος (firm), καὶ (and) πᾶσα (all) παράβασις (transgression) καὶ (and) ...
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35 views

In Phil. 1:23, what is the significance of the second infinitive being anarthrous in the phrase «τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι»?

In Phil. 1:23, it is written, συνέχομαι γὰρ ἐκ τῶν δύο τὴν ἐπιθυμίαν ἔχων εἰς τὸ ἀναλῦσαι καὶ σὺν Χριστῷ εἶναι πολλῷ μᾶλλον κρεῖσσον TR, 1550 What significance if any is there in the second ...
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21 views

What is the significance of τὴν κατατομήν in Phil 3:2? [duplicate]

The Apostle Paul makes several references to circumcision throughout his epistles. However, in his epistle to the Philippians, he uses two different words for circumcision as the following two verses ...
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69 views

What does the Greek word μεριμνᾶτε mean in Philippians 4:6?

The ESV translation of Philippians 4:6 reads: Do not be anxious about anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known to God. If the ...
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75 views

Does those who obey him just mean believe (not reject him) in Hebrews 5:9

Does those who obey him just mean believe (not reject him) in Hebrews 5:9 Hebrews 5:9: And having been made perfect, He came to all those who obey Him, the source of eternal salvation. What ...
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Ephesians 1:10 - Who or what does «τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς» refer to?

In Ephesians 1:10, it is written, εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (TR, 1550) According to my ...
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57 views

John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
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39 views

Is NLT rendering of εἰ μὴ in Gal. 1:19 correct? [duplicate]

In the NLT we see a very explicit rendering of εἰ μὴ as an exception: NLT Gal. 1:19 The only other apostle I met at that time was James, the Lord’s brother. Is this the correct? Does εἰ μὴ in Gal. ...
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12 views

Hebrew-to-Greek translation of birth narrative's “virgin” [duplicate]

I've been going through a list of words and phrases that were possibly mistranslated from Hebrew to Greek, Old Testament to New Testament. The one that stood out to me with great significance is how ...
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60 views

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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63 views

Luke 17:5 - What is the meaning and significance of the phrase πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν?

The Textus Receptus of Luke 17:5 states, Καὶ εἶπον οἱ ἀπόστολοι τῷ κυρίῳ πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν What is the meaning of the phrase «πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν»? Does the phrase it imply that our faith (...
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33 views

Meaning of Matthew 16:28 [duplicate]

None the disciples who heard Jesus speak the words of Mat 16:28 is alive today. So what did Jesus really mean? What is it that some of them would see in their lifetime? Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell ...
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2answers
121 views

What does the Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής mean in Acts 14:15?

The Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής is a compound word. It came from two words: ὅμοιος (like/similar)and πάσχω (feelings/strong emotion). Why, then, the NASB translate it as 'of same nature' and why, then, the ...
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1answer
143 views

In John 1:30, what is the meaning of the phrase “After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me”?

In John 1:30, it is written, 30 “This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ NKJV Λʹ οὗτός ἐστιν περὶ οὗ ἐγὼ εἶπον Ὀπίσω μου ἔρχεται ...
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200 views

What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?

I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 - 1 Corinthians 11:4 πᾶς ἀνὴρ ...
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1answer
41 views

Luke 5:39- KJV “bottles” vs. NKJV “winskins”?

WHY does King James Version use word "bottles " in Luke 5:39 and not wine skins?
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1answer
71 views

Comparing a portion of 2 Peter 3:4 to a portion of John 19:25

When comparing the five-word parsed phrase in 2 Peter 3:4 (ἡ ἐπαγγελία τῆς παρουσίας αὐτοῦ) to a similarly parsed phrase in the John 19:25 (ἡ ἀδελφὴ τῆς μητρὸς αὐτου), what valid conclusion, if any, ...
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2answers
465 views

What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

If μονογενὴς Θεὸς is regarded as the correct reading, then, what would it mean? θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. John 1:18 (...
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1answer
5k views

Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek? [closed]

How is good news of military victory for the Romans a message that would have emanated from the Jews?
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121 views

In Philippians 2:25, what is the most accurate translation of «ἀπόστολον»?

The Greek text of Phil. 2:25 according to the Textus Receptus states, ΚΕʹ Ἀναγκαῖον δὲ ἡγησάμην Ἐπαφρόδιτον τὸν ἀδελφὸν καὶ συνεργὸν καὶ συστρατιώτην μου ὑμῶν δὲ ἀπόστολον καὶ λειτουργὸν τῆς ...