Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Does the NLT translate Luke 9:7 accurately?

In Luke 9:1-6, Jesus sends the 12 apostles out to tell the Good News and to do miracles, specifically healing the sick. In Luke 9:10, the apostles come back and tell Jesus about what they had done. In ...
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What is the “worship of angels”?

In Colossians 2:18, Paul warns his readers, "Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize" (NIV emphasis mine). Of course, that it is in the ...
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What were the major objections that Augustine had with Jerome's translation of the Hebrew Bible?

I was having a discussion with someone who insisted that one of the major reasons I thought that Augustine objected to Jerome's translation of the Septuagint was completely not true. He argued that ...
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Comparison of English word “fool” in original Hebrew and Greek

Question is based on this comment on Christiantity SE. In the OT, the word fool is apparently used to describe atheists: The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.” Psalm 14:1 and Psalm ...
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Sense of περἰ in Romans 8:3

Romans 8:3 says the following καἰ περἰ ἁμαρτἰας (and for sin) Many translations suggest as an offering for sin as an alternate translation. I can see how περί can mean in place of, but is as an ...
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Will glory be revealed “in us” or “to us” in Romans 8:18?

Here's Romans 8:18 in ESV: For I consider that the sufferings of this present time are not worth comparing with the glory that is to be revealed to us. and here is Romans 8:18 in NKJV: For I ...
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Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?

I'm interested in this question because some liberal theologians insist that the Bible does not say anything about premarital sex*. To get a reasonable scope for the question, I limit this to just the ...
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Do Peter and the author of Hebrews intend different meanings of ἀρχηγὸν?

When members of the early Jerusalem chuch were arrested, they defended their actions thusly: But Peter and the apostles answered, “We must obey God rather than men. The God of our fathers raised ...
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Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?

In Hebrews 5:7 Jesus has his 'prayer heard in what he feared' or 'heard in respect to what he feared' - 'εισακουσθεις απο της ευλαβειας'. The ESV had his prayer was heard 'because of his reverence' ...
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The will of God in Ephesians 1: εὐδοκία, βουλή, θελήμα

Paul places an emphasis on the will and plan of God in Ephesians 1. In addition to the verbs προορίζω ("I predestine") and ἐκλέγω ("I choose"), three nouns factor large in this theme. Here they are, ...
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Translation of “οἰκονομίαν”

Οἰκονομία is often glossed stewardship; the UBS 4th edition Greek New Testament renders it management of a household in the glossary. However, I find it is often difficult to translate in a sentence. ...
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Meaning of ἡ κοινωνία τῆς πίστεώς σου in Philemon 6

What is the meaning of ἡ κοινωνία τῆς πίστεώς σου in Philemon 6? I have seen it rendered fellowship, sharing, communication, et cetera, but I haven't been able to clearly ascertain Paul's ...
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Connotation of πλεονεξία in Colossians 3:5

Looking at Colossians 3:5 in Greek: Νεκρώσατε οὖν τὰ μέλη τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, πορνείαν ἀκαθαρσίαν πάθος ἐπιθυμίαν κακήν, καὶ τὴν πλεονεξίαν, ἥτις ἐστὶν εἰδωλολατρία. Πλεονεξία, often translated ...
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Why is there numerical ambiguity in Matthew 18:21-22?

Matthew 18:21-22 (NIV) 21 Then Peter came to Jesus and asked, “Lord, how many times shall I forgive my brother or sister who sins against me? Up to seven times?” 22 Jesus ...
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Was Greek Mark's second language?

I've noted that Jesus probably spoke little Greek and did not have formal training. Similarly, Peter and John were likely not trained in Greek (see Acts 4:13). Bart Ehrman points out: [The four ...
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346 views

Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
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Translation of κοπιῶντες in Matthew 11:28

The word κοπιῶντες in Matt. 11:28 is translated differently in the NASB and the ESV: NASB: “Come to Me, all who are weary and heavy-laden, and I will give you rest. ESV: Come to me, all who ...
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Where was the dinner in John 12?

On this question someone posted a link to an article arguing that Lazaraus is the beloved disciple. One of the arguments he makes is that his theory cleanly reconciles the account of a dinner in John ...
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Is the usual translation of “ηὐχόμην” as “I could wish” justified in Romans 9:3?

In the early part of Romans 9, Paul speaks fervently of his hope and anguish concerning his fellow-countrymen, even contemplating losing his own salvation if it could gain theirs: 1I am speaking ...
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What is the textual evidence for defining “μισέω” as “reject”?

I have heard that μισέω does not necessarily mean hate in the sense of a wrathful detestation, but can also have a judicial sense, i.e. reject. A classic example where this meaning would be applied is ...
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Pros and Cons of Barth's Commentary on Romans

What are the merits/problems with Karl Barth's commentary on Romans? How much does he treat the details of the Greek? What is his overall hermeneutic of the book? (Please steer away from explaining ...
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Does baptizing come after discipling in Matthew 28:19?

Matthew 28:19 (ESV) reads: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, In the Greek, (according to Blue ...
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What is indicated by “δοξάζω” being in the aorist in Romans 8:30?

Every verb in Romans 8:30 is in the aorist: οὓς δὲ προώρισεν, τούτους καὶ ἐκάλεσεν· καὶ οὓς ἐκάλεσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδικαίωσεν· οὓς δὲ ἐδικαίωσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδόξασεν. Those whom he ...
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671 views

Meaning of “Body of Flesh” in Colossians 2:11

In Colossians 2:11, what does Paul mean by τοῦ σώματος τῆς σαρκός? Paul uses σάρξ to refer to the body or the physical far less than John, and it is clear that isn't what he's referring to here: the ...
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What is the difference between “righteous” and “just” in the NT? [closed]

I've basically always used these words synonymously. Can someone elaborate on whether there is a difference?
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Women and chief men stirred up - Acts 13:50

Acts 13:50 says in part that the Jews "stirred up the devout and prominent women AND the chief men of the city" raising up persecution against Paul and Barnabus, causing them to be expelled from the ...
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355 views

Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?

Paul in his letter to the Romans writes in 6:12-13: Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desires. Do not offer any part of yourself to sin as an instrument ...
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In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
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Are the four profitable areas in 2 Tim 3:16 covering doctrine and practice?

Looking at 2 Tim 3:16 16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, (ESV) I was checking some ...
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1 Cor 7:21 Is there any justification to translate this “remain a slave”?

I'm an Englishman and so am used to seeing the verse from 1 Cor 7 translated something like this: 20 Each one should remain in the condition in which he was called. 21Were you a slave when ...