Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Who is being “taken” in Matthew 24:40-41?

Matthew 24:40-41 (ESV) Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two women will be grinding oat at the mill; one will be taken and one left. One of the interpretations ...
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Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton ...
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The Greek origin of the New Testament [duplicate]

Today mainstream scholars think the New Testament has been written in Greek. What are their arguments?
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Does 2 Peter 1:1 refer to Jesus as “God”? [duplicate]

2 Peter 1:1 says the following in the NASB: To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ Are "God and Savior" two terms ...
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2answers
341 views

Healing of the Centurion's παῖς (servant, son?) in Matthew 8:5-13

I have heard it said that the Centurion in Matthew 8 was refering to his "παῖς" in the sense of servant or slave, and all translations seem to take it that way. I've heard people go on to say that ...
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2answers
227 views

What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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2answers
268 views

What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?

What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3? Is the phrase «κύριος Ἰησοῦς» to be understood as "Jesus is Yahveh" (where κύριος is a substitute for the Tetragrammaton), or "Jesus is the lord" ...
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Can “pharmakous” mean something other than “sorceror”?

The Hebrew word כַשֵּׁף is typically translated "sorcery" in Hebrew-to-English translations. Paro had court sorcerors replicate some of God's miracles and Nebuchanezer asks his sorcerors to interpret ...
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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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4answers
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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286 views

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

In studying Acts this week in Turkish, I noticed that there is considerable difference in between translations of Acts 1:3. A quick look through English translations shows a similar range of ...
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1answer
86 views

Why is the word ἐβαπτίσθη used in Luke 11:38?

When referring to washing up before eating in Luke 11:38 (actually referring to not washing), the greek word used is ἐβαπτίσθη (ebaptisthē: he washed). Yet, in Mark 7:3, which is also referring to ...
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33 views

Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
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451 views

The original Greek meaning for 'house' in Acts 2:2

the Holy Spirit filled the whole house where they were sitting What was the original Greek word for 'house'? Could it be referring to the House of the Lord rather than a home dwelling? It seems to ...
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99 views

1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?

In 1 Kings 1:53, it is written, So king Solomon sent, and they brought him down from the altar. And he came and bowed himself to king Solomon: and Solomon said unto him, Go to thine house. (King ...
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89 views

Is “ordination” in Leviticus 8 the underlying concept of “fulfilled” in Matthew 5:17?

Leviticus 8:22 (ESV) reads: Then he presented the other ram, the ram of ordination, and Aaron and his sons laid their hands on the head of the ram. The Hebrew word here translated "ordination" ...
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Luke 17:5 - What is the meaning and significance of the phrase πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν?

The Textus Receptus of Luke 17:5 states, Καὶ εἶπον οἱ ἀπόστολοι τῷ κυρίῳ πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν What is the meaning of the phrase «πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν»? Does the phrase it imply that our faith (...
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1answer
88 views

Acts 16:16: Meaning of πύθωνος (Textus Receptus) and πύθωνα (NA28)

Acts 16:16 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): Ἐγένετο δὲ πορευομένων ἡμῶν εἰς προσευχὴν παιδίσκην τινὰ ἔχουσαν πνεῦμα πύθωνος ἀπαντῆσαι ἡμῖν ἥτις ἐργασίαν πολλὴν παρεῖχεν τοῖς ...
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3answers
493 views

What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?

I have a question about the context of Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56 as they relate to the buying and preparing of the burial spices for Jesus of Nazareth. Mark 16:1 (ESV) states: When the Sabbath was ...
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1answer
71 views

Comparing a portion of 2 Peter 3:4 to a portion of John 19:25

When comparing the five-word parsed phrase in 2 Peter 3:4 (ἡ ἐπαγγελία τῆς παρουσίας αὐτοῦ) to a similarly parsed phrase in the John 19:25 (ἡ ἀδελφὴ τῆς μητρὸς αὐτου), what valid conclusion, if any, ...
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What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
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Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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2answers
103 views

2 Tim. 1:12: παραθήκην v. 2 Tim. 1:14: παρακαταθήκην

Is there a similarity between παραθήκην in 2 Tim. 1:12 and παρακαταθήκην in 2 Tim. 1:14? What do they refer to in each passage? I have used the Textus Receptus for the basis of this question. 2 Tim....
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360 views

Does the Greek of John 20:28 address two persons or one?

I don't know Greek and even less about rules of Greek grammar. Can somebody please help me by reviewing a statement written by a popular Unitarian? Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my ...
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1answer
125 views

Luke 16:26: “There is a great chasm fixed between us and you”

In Luke 16:26, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, καὶ ἐπὶ πάσιν τούτοις μεταξὺ ἡμῶν καὶ ὑμῶν χάσμα μέγα ἐστήρικται ὅπως οἱ θέλοντες διαβῆναι ἐντεῦθεν πρὸς ὑμᾶς μὴ δύνωνται ...
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In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611),...
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Evidence from early manuscripts of Revelation 13:18?

I'm hoping to see facsimiles of the earliest manuscripts of Rev 13:18, where the number 600, 60 and 6 is mentioned. There's a myriad of translations, but I'm interested in how the number was written ...
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Question regarding John 12:32 [duplicate]

In John 12:32 (ESV) Jesus says, And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people (πάντας, pantas) to myself. I made the following statement to someone who is seeking to qualify ...
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1answer
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How is it that Χριστῷ (Christ) was not ζῳοποιηθήσονται (alive) when 1 Corinthians 15:22 was composed?

The phrase, “shall be made alive” (ζῳοποιηθήσονται) in 1 Corinthians 15:22 stems from the use of zOopoieO, as a verb in the future tense. The future action of zOopoieO seems directed towards two ...
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2answers
526 views

Are there any non-biblical occurrences of Koine Greek? Are there occurrences prior to the Septuagint/NT?

It is taught and widely held, that the Hebrew Bible was translated into the Greek used by the common people of the day (Septuagint) and that the Greek NT was written in Koine Greek, the common ...
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2answers
115 views

In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?

The King James Version of 2 Tim. 3:16 states: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: The ...
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1answer
190 views

Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean (...
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60 views

Jam. 2:7: What is the meaning of τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς?

The Greek text of Jam. 2:7 according to the Textus Receptus states, οὐκ αὐτοὶ βλασφημοῦσιν τὸ καλὸν ὄνομα τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς The Greek phrase τὸ ἐπικληθὲν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς seems to modify τὸ καλὸν ...
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86 views

Rom. 15:16: What is the meaning of ἱερουργοῦντα?

The Greek text of Rom. 15:16 according to the Textus Receptus states, εἰς τὸ εἶναί με λειτουργὸν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ εἰς τὰ ἔθνη ἱερουργοῦντα τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα γένηται ἡ προσφορὰ τῶν ἐθνῶν ...
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1answer
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Rom. 9:6: Which translation is more accurate according to the Greek?

Greek text (NA28): Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ. οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· I am concerned with the latter clause: οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ· Which ...
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Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
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Jam. 5:14: Why does James write ἀλείψαντες rather than χρίσαντες?

In Jam. 5:14, it is written, ἀσθενεῖ τις ἐν ὑμῖν προσκαλεσάσθω τοὺς πρεσβυτέρους τῆς ἐκκλησίας καὶ προσευξάσθωσαν ἐπ᾽ αὐτὸν ἀλείψαντες αὐτὸν ἐλαίῳ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Why does James write (...
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241 views

Being saved or saved in 1 Cor 15:2?

What is the best and most plausible English translation for this sentence in 1 Cor 15:2 from a linguistic and grammatical stand point (not theological)? (a) 'being saved' as a process in progress? ...
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1answer
92 views

Who was “speaking in David”?

My question pertains to Hebrews 4:7, which reads as follows: He again fixes a certain day, “Today,” saying [in] David after so long a time just as has been said before, “Today if you hear His ...
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36 views

What does the Greek for “be reconciled” mean in 2 Corinthians 5:20? [duplicate]

The Greek word for reconciled in 2 Cor 5:20 is καταλλάγητε and parsed an Aorist Passive Imperative - so why do most translations translate this as "be reconciled" giving the reader idea that we need ...
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1answer
109 views

Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
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1answer
489 views

NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
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471 views

Who were the “poor among the saints” in Jerusalem?

Near the end of Romans there are details about financial relationships between churches. It's never really occurred to me to read it as anything but the face value in English: Romans 15:25-26 (ESV)...
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1answer
92 views

Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?

This verse appears to be referring to the Tanakh, which of course contains the Torah ("Teaching", which contains the Law of Moses), Nevi'im ("Prophets") and Ketuvim ("Writings" or "Hagiographa"), but ...
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2answers
688 views

What is Paul “giving his body over” to in 1 Corinthians 13:3?

1 Corinthians 13:3 reads as follows in King James Bible: And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. ...
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What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
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1answer
152 views

Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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2answers
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What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...
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2answers
2k views

How should “ektroma ” be translated in 1 Corinthians 15:8?

Paul delivers his famous account of the death and resurrection of Jesus: For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the ...
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2answers
100 views

After He had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever (Hebrews 10:12)

Hebrews 10:11-12 (KJV) 11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: 12 But this man, after he had offered one ...