Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

learn more… | top users | synonyms (1)

7
votes
3answers
20k views

What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
5
votes
1answer
143 views

Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
3
votes
2answers
1k views

What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...
5
votes
2answers
2k views

How should “ektroma ” be translated in 1 Corinthians 15:8?

Paul delivers his famous account of the death and resurrection of Jesus: For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the ...
4
votes
2answers
97 views

After He had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever (Hebrews 10:12)

Hebrews 10:11-12 (KJV) 11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: 12 But this man, after he had offered one ...
2
votes
0answers
151 views

Clarification on the Greek pronoun allos [closed]

Calling all Greek experts! I'm particularly curious about the pronoun allos. I'm not educated enough in the nuances of Greek grammar to be able to accurately come up with an answer so I'd like to get ...
12
votes
5answers
8k views

Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7

Luke 2:7 translates "kataluma" as "inn". But in Luke 22:11 the same word is used for what seems to be a personal residence: 11 And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith ...
5
votes
1answer
112 views

Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
11
votes
2answers
566 views

What are the “lower parts” in Ephesians 4:9?

Ephesians 4:9 SBLGNT: τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη εἰς τὰ κατώτερα μέρη τῆς γῆς; KJV (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts ...
6
votes
3answers
7k views

Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?

The word translated as "messiah" in the Bible can apparently have a few meanings in both Hebrew and Greek. It is usually used to simply say "anointed" or "anointed one". For example, see this usage: ...
5
votes
0answers
383 views

What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word? [closed]

In Galatians 5:20, among the deeds of the flesh, Paul lists "pharmakeia," which, as i understand, is commonly translated as sorcery or witchcraft, referring to the use or administering of drugs or ...
3
votes
3answers
2k views

Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
4
votes
3answers
1k views

Does the phrase “born of water and the Spirit” refer to one, or two births?

In John 3:5, Jesus says that we must be "born of water and the Spirit". Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of ...
10
votes
3answers
7k views

Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
7
votes
1answer
204 views

Who is the referent of 'us' (ἡμῖν) in Matthew 3:15 if not merely Jesus and John?

Matthew 3:15 reads (emphasis mine): ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν· ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην. τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν (NA28). But Jesus answered ...
6
votes
2answers
157 views

What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
6
votes
3answers
239 views

Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
6
votes
1answer
479 views

Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key ...
2
votes
1answer
244 views

The usage of the word “curse” in Gal 3:13

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree” (Gal 3:13 ESV) This verse has always intrigued me, ...
6
votes
2answers
391 views

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

According to Philippians 1:29: ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν because to you it has been granted - concerning Christ, not only - ...
5
votes
2answers
251 views

John 21:15: “do you love me more than…?”

John 21:15a reads NA28 Ὅτε οὖν ἠρίστησαν λέγει τῷ Σίμωνι Πέτρῳ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων; ESV When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son ...
2
votes
1answer
65 views

Does πολιτείας imply citizenship status with Israel?

ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ (Eph. 2:12 TR) Paul makes a ...
9
votes
4answers
3k views

What is the meaning of “calculate” in Revelation 13:18?

This is perhaps the most famous prophesy in popular culture: This calls for wisdom: let the one who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man, and his ...
5
votes
2answers
231 views

What is the meaning of τῆς παραγγελίας in 1 Tim. 1:5?

In 1 Timothy 1:5, the Greek text states, τὸ δὲ τέλος τῆς παραγγελίας ἐστὶν ἀγάπη ἐκ καθαρᾶς καρδίας καὶ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς καὶ πίστεως ἀνυποκρίτου I'm intentionally avoiding translating the ...
11
votes
2answers
392 views

Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? ...
11
votes
2answers
531 views

What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

Romans 1:16-17 (excerpted), ESV: For I am not ashamed of the gospel . . . For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith . . . SBLGNT: Οὐ γὰρ ἐπαισχύνομαι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ...
7
votes
1answer
169 views

Forgiveness, yes or no?

I have been reading 1 John, and, just to quote two verses, he says; 1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason ...
10
votes
2answers
2k views

Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

Mark 1:41 NIV: Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out his hand and touched the man. ‘I am willing,’ he said. ‘Be clean!’ [a] Many manuscripts Jesus was filled with compassion The ...
1
vote
2answers
347 views

What pronoun refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:26?

In John 14:26, English translations read, "He will teach you all things" or something similar, referring to the Holy Spirit with a masculine singular pronoun. Apparently the Greek word is "ekeinos", ...
1
vote
1answer
141 views

Why does sending Epaphroditus to the Philippian Christians make Paul less anxious?

Philippians 2:28 (NA28) reads: σπουδαιοτέρως οὖν ἔπεμψα αὐτόν, ἵνα ἰδόντες αὐτὸν πάλιν χαρῆτε κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ. I am specifically interested in the meaning of κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ, which simply ...
1
vote
0answers
33 views

Meaning of Matthew 16:28 [duplicate]

None the disciples who heard Jesus speak the words of Mat 16:28 is alive today. So what did Jesus really mean? What is it that some of them would see in their lifetime? Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell ...
4
votes
2answers
551 views

How to interpret John 2:10

King James Bible: And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now. ...
9
votes
3answers
1k views

Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to ...
0
votes
1answer
91 views

Does the Greek verb ὑπακούω generally imply faith?

I noticed the Greek verb ὑπακοῦσαι (hypakousai), a conjugation of the root verb ὑπακούω (hypakouō), is translated as "[to] answer" in Acts 12:13: Peter knocked at the outer entrance, and a servant ...
12
votes
3answers
23k views

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
2
votes
2answers
1k views

Translation of “ἐλπίς” [closed]

Ἐλπίς is a theologically important word in the New Testament. It is glossed hope, but I have often heard it emphasized that this does not mean hope in the sense of a positive wish or feeling which is ...
4
votes
1answer
130 views

Question about translation of Romans 4:9

In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse.1 (Emphasis added for sake of comparison) ...
18
votes
5answers
2k views

Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?

I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
12
votes
3answers
837 views

Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?

John 7:15 (ESV): The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning,1 when he has never studied?” The footnote is: 7:15 Or this man knows his letters So there ...
11
votes
3answers
8k views

Forgive us our “debts”? “sins”? “trespasses”? Which is the most accurate translation?

It seems that there are three popular versions of this passage in the Lord's prayer. "Forgive us our sins", "Forgive us our debts", and "Forgive us our trespasses". I see one version here in the ...
9
votes
2answers
1k views

What does 1 Corinthians 9:27 literally say?

I'm used to reading the Bible in Finnish, so 1 Corinthians 9:27 seems very non-literal in most English translations. The Finnish 1992 translation is usually quite dynamic, but in this case it starts ...
4
votes
3answers
417 views

“Slave” vs. “servant” in Colossians [duplicate]

The translators of the NET note for Colossians 1:7 and 4:12, The Greek word translated “fellow slave” is σύνδουλος (sundoulo"); the σύν- prefix here denotes association. Though δοῦλος is normally ...
6
votes
1answer
204 views

What is the meaning of “Place your bread on the grave of the righteous” in Tobit 4:17 NRSV?

Is this an idiom, a mistranslation, a reference to a cultural practice, or something else entirely?
5
votes
1answer
341 views

Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?

Romans 3:4b, Paul quoting the psalm (SBLGNT): Ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου καὶ νικήσεις ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε. The Hebrew (51:4) is always translated with God as the subject - "thy ...
3
votes
2answers
106 views

John 20:17: τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν

In John 20:17, instead of saying τὸν πατέρα ἡμῶν καὶ θεόν ἡμῶν, that is, "our Father and our God," Jesus instead says, τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν, that is, "my Father ...
6
votes
1answer
220 views

Romans 5:1 and peace with God

The UBS4 reading of Romans 5:1 is: Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (emphasis added) At issue is a textual variation concerning the ...
10
votes
3answers
778 views

What is the significance of the phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος in the Apocalypse?

The phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος occurs four times in the Textus Receptus, all in the Apocalypse as follows: Rev. 1:4: ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν ...
4
votes
1answer
135 views

Explanation of the Textual Variant in Mark 14:65

The Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) has: Καὶ ἤρξαντό τινες ἐμπτύειν αὐτῷ καὶ περικαλύπτειν τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ καὶ κολαφίζειν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγειν αὐτῷ Προφήτευσον καὶ οἱ ὑπηρέται ῥαπίσμασιν αὐτὸν ...
4
votes
1answer
154 views

Heb. 2:16 — Is the translation of the KJV accurate?

The King James Version (1611) seems to take some liberty in its translation of Heb. 2:16: Notice how the font of "the nature of" (as well as "him") is different from the rest of the verse, ...
3
votes
1answer
130 views

Translation of ἀετοί in Matthew 24:28

I know that another question focuses on the meaning of the phrase in which this word is used, but I am only interested in the translation of the word itself (most answers to that question take the ...