Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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In Luke 2:22, why does the King James Version translate «τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν» as “her purification”?

In Luke 2:22, it is written, And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; KJV, 1769 Καὶ ...
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Blood of God reference to Christ's deity (Act:20:28)

In Acts 20 verses 18-25, Paul addressed the Ephesian elders with a heart felt message. At verse 28 Paul seems to indicate that it was Yahweh's blood, which would specify Christ's shed blood, that ...
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Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
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The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
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After He had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever (Hebrews 10:12)

Hebrews 10:11-12 (KJV) 11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: 12 But this man, after he had offered one ...
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Explanation of the Textual Variant in Mark 14:65

The Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) has: Καὶ ἤρξαντό τινες ἐμπτύειν αὐτῷ καὶ περικαλύπτειν τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ καὶ κολαφίζειν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγειν αὐτῷ Προφήτευσον καὶ οἱ ὑπηρέται ῥαπίσμασιν αὐτὸν ...
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Is Peter's use of Tartarus adoptive of Hellenistic language or ideas?

We see here in 2 Peter 2:4 reference to what in most English translations is "hell", but in the Greek is Tartarus (as usually the footnotes note): For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, ...
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In Mark 3, is it Jesus' family or friends who try to take him away

Mark 3:21 NLT "When his family heard what was happening, they tried to take him away. “He’s out of his mind,” they said." IN other versions it says "own people" or "friends" The greek was not very ...
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Is there precedent (perhaps in Jewish tradition) for the usage of “Rabboni,” which is solely found consistently in John 10:26?

John 10:26 New International Version Jesus said to her, "Mary." She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, "Rabboni!" (which means "Teacher"). New Living Translation "Mary!" Jesus ...
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What is the correct translation and meaning of Matt. 11:19?

Matt. 11:19 says,(KJV) " The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her ...
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Heb. 2:16 — Is the translation of the KJV accurate?

The King James Version (1611) seems to take some liberty in its translation of Heb. 2:16: Notice how the font of "the nature of" (as well as "him") is different from the rest of the verse, ...
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209 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
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Question about translation of Romans 4:9

In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse.1 (Emphasis added for sake of comparison) ...
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Meaning of ἐνδημέω and ἐκδημέω in 2 Cor 5?

I was studying 2 Corinthians 5:1-10 when I noticed that two terms that play a major part in its interpretation are very unusual Greek words: ἐνδημέω - endēmeō ἐκδημέω - ekdēmeō They are clearly ...
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Is John 12:41 talking about Jesus' glory or YHWH's?

Does John 12:41 say that Isaiah saw YHWH's glory or Jesus' glory? Which option is more supported by the underlying Greek text and the context of the passage? "Isaiah said these things because he ...
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The correct translation of Isaiah 24:23

In Isaiah 24:23 we have וְחָֽפְרָה הַלְּבָנָה וּבוֹשָׁ֖ה הַֽחַמָּ֑ה The moon shall blush and the sun ashamed where levanah = moon and chammah = sun. But the Septuagint gives καὶ τακήσεται ...
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In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase τὸ χρίσμα?

In 1 John 2:27, it is written, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is ...
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Who are “the sons of disobedience” in Colossians 3:6?

If this variant represents the original text, then who are "the sons of disobedience" (τοὺς υἱοὺς τῆς ἀπειθείας, tous huious tēs apeitheias) in Colossians 3:6? NA28: δι᾿ ἃ ἔρχεται ἡ ὀργὴ τοῦ ...
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What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)? 1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ...
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Luke 16:26: “There is a great chasm fixed between us and you”

In Luke 16:26, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, καὶ ἐπὶ πάσιν τούτοις μεταξὺ ἡμῶν καὶ ὑμῶν χάσμα μέγα ἐστήρικται ὅπως οἱ θέλοντες διαβῆναι ἐντεῦθεν πρὸς ὑμᾶς μὴ δύνωνται ...
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Acts 11:20: Ἕλληνας or Ἑλληνιστάς?

In Acts 11:20, of the words Ἕλληνας and Ἑλληνιστάς, which reading is more probable according to textual criticism? Which reading is more probable according to context? What is the meaning of each word?...
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Acts 2:6: What does τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης refer to?

The Greek text of Acts 2:6 according to both the Textus Receptus and NA28 states, γενομένης δὲ τῆς φωνῆς ταύτης συνῆλθεν τὸ πλῆθος καὶ συνεχύθη ὅτι ἤκουον εἷς ἕκαστος τῇ ἰδίᾳ διαλέκτῳ λαλούντων ...
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In Luke 6-7, What is the Difference Between the Three Greek Words for “Forgive”?

Question In Luke 6-7, What is the Difference Between the Three Greek Words for "Forgive"? How should these differences impact the interpretation of the text? Is it simply that different terms ...
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Could I Corinthians 2:15 carry a sense of “surprise”?

I was listening to an old sermon by David Jeremiah today in which he suggested that the original Greek of I Corinthians 2:15 would be read with a connotation of "surprise" which would be captured by a ...
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Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
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768 views

Is “for ever and ever” eternal?

Revelation 14:11: And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever I was told that "for ever and ever" in Greek like in the verse above or elsewhere in the N.T. may not at all mean ...
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In 1 Thessalonians 4:16, does «ἐν Χριστῷ» modify «οἱ νεκροὶ» or «ἀναστήσονται»?

In 1 Thes. 4:16, it is written, 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. ...
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How should “not all” be read in 1 Corinthians 15:51

Consider 1 Corinthians 15:51: (NASB) Behold, I tell you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed, (W & H) ἰδοὺ μυστήριον ὑμῖν λέγω· πάντες οὐ κοιμηθησόμεθα πάντες δὲ ...
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In the Gospels, Can “Day of:” the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?

Related: - The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom? - Was the Last Supper Actually a Passover Feast? - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation') - ...
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'In all the world' - are Matthew 24:14 & Colossians 1:6 talking about the same scope?

"This good news of the kingdom will be proclaimed in all the world as a testimony to all nations. And then the end will come." - Matthew 24:14 (HCSB) καὶ κηρυχθήσεται τοῦτο τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς ...
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Does Pilate's language suggest a timing for the customary release?

Does the language used in the three verses referencing the release of a prisoner at the feast suggest anything about the timing of such a release? In Matthew and Mark it is the Feast and in John it ...
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“I am the Christ” vs. “I am he” in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
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Is “ordination” in Leviticus 8 the underlying concept of “fulfilled” in Matthew 5:17?

Leviticus 8:22 (ESV) reads: Then he presented the other ram, the ram of ordination, and Aaron and his sons laid their hands on the head of the ram. The Hebrew word here translated "ordination" ...
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1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?

In 1 Kings 1:53, it is written, So king Solomon sent, and they brought him down from the altar. And he came and bowed himself to king Solomon: and Solomon said unto him, Go to thine house. (King ...
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422 views

“Slave” vs. “servant” in Colossians [duplicate]

The translators of the NET note for Colossians 1:7 and 4:12, The Greek word translated “fellow slave” is σύνδουλος (sundoulo"); the σύν- prefix here denotes association. Though δοῦλος is normally ...
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What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?

I have a question about the context of Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56 as they relate to the buying and preparing of the burial spices for Jesus of Nazareth. Mark 16:1 (ESV) states: When the Sabbath was ...
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In Hebrews 9:23, why does the author use the plural “better sacrifices” rather than the singular “better sacrifice”?

In Heb. 9:23, it is written, 23 It is necessary, therefore, the pattern indeed of the things in the heavens to be purified with these, and the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices ...
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In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when ...
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Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
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What is the difference between en/eis for Pauline “Faith in Christ” phrases?

Paul has several different phrases which all translate "Faith in Christ". This question pertains to the difference in meaning for faith in Christ where the English word "in" has a direct Greek word, ...
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Who is “The Son” in Hebrews chapter 1: 8 ? Is He God in the strictest sense of the word, or a created being?

The New World Translation, gives us a very contrary translation of this verse, that sets the stage for this question.! It's translators have this rendering to offer as a legitimate rendering of ...
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Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult? [closed]

In Acts 24:5 it says “We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect Some people say that when they ...
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Greek text of Romans 8:28

Is there a Greek word for 'things', as in Romans 8:28? And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose.
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Matt. 5:28: αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς as the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

The Textus Receptus (1550, Estienne) has the pronoun αὐτῆς as the object of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι, while the NA28 has αὐτὴν. Grammatically, which is the preferred reading? Which manuscripts ...
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242 views

Was Greek Mark's second language?

I've noted that Jesus probably spoke little Greek and did not have formal training. Similarly, Peter and John were likely not trained in Greek (see Acts 4:13). Bart Ehrman points out: [The four ...
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John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
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John 6:45 - What is the meaning of «διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ»?

In John 6:45, it is written, ἔστιν γεγραμμένον ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Καὶ ἔσονται πάντες διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ πᾶς οὖν ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς με TR, 1550 The Lord Jesus Christ ...
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What is the Greek word for gods?

In 1 Corinthians 8:5, Paul says or though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) What is the difference in Greek between God and ...
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Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
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What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...