Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

learn more… | top users | synonyms (1)

5
votes
1answer
183 views

Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
5
votes
1answer
280 views

What is the meaning of the genitive absolute in Hebrews 4:3?

Hebrews 4:3 in Greek: εἰσερχόμεθα γὰρ εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσιν οἱ πιστεύσαντες, καθὼς εἴρηκεν, Ὡς ὤμοσα ἐν τῇ ὀργῇ μου, εἰ εἰσελεύσονται εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσίν μου. καίτοι τῶν ἔργων ἀπὸ καταβολῆς ...
5
votes
3answers
207 views

What is indicated by “δοξάζω” being in the aorist in Romans 8:30?

Every verb in Romans 8:30 is in the aorist: οὓς δὲ προώρισεν, τούτους καὶ ἐκάλεσεν· καὶ οὓς ἐκάλεσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδικαίωσεν· οὓς δὲ ἐδικαίωσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδόξασεν. Those whom he ...
5
votes
1answer
62 views

Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?

As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!). Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
5
votes
1answer
82 views

Why is the word ἐβαπτίσθη used in Luke 11:38?

When referring to washing up before eating in Luke 11:38 (actually referring to not washing), the greek word used is ἐβαπτίσθη (ebaptisthē: he washed). Yet, in Mark 7:3, which is also referring to ...
5
votes
1answer
152 views

What does πρόγνωσις mean and how would you translate in Acts 2:23

In Acts 2:23 we read: τοῦτον τῇ ὡρισμένῃ βουλῇ καὶ προγνώσει τοῦ θεοῦ ἔκδοτον διὰ χειρὸς ἀνόμων προσπήξαντες ἀνείλατε. προγνώσει seems to be fairly consistently translated as 'foreknowledge' but ...
5
votes
4answers
965 views

How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the ...
5
votes
1answer
216 views

Is it likely that there is an intentional relationship between ἐγένετο in Jn 1:3 and Jn 1:6?

The Gk word ἐγένετο (from γίγνομαι) can mean many things: to come into being (to be born or to be produced), to take place, to become (one of ...), etc. In the beginning of John's Gospel, the word is ...
5
votes
2answers
130 views

Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17

II Tim 3:17 says, "ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος".(TR Stephanus-1550) "That complete might be the of God man towards every work good, having been fully ...
5
votes
1answer
85 views

What is the meaning/connotation of προσεποιήσατο in Luke 24:28?

In Luke 24:28, we read ... καὶ αὐτὸς προσεποιήσατο πορρώτερον πορεύεσθαι (Westcott & Hort)1 ... and He προσεποιήσατο farther to be going Here, does προσεποιήσατο carry an active sense, ...
5
votes
2answers
93 views

How does ὁ ἐρχόμενος relate to the Father? How is the father “coming”? (Ἀποκάλυψις [Revelation] 1,4)

Ἀποκάλυψις 1,4α Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν τῇ Ἀσίᾳ · χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος ... From context, this is a reference to the Father (1,4β refers to the ...
5
votes
1answer
104 views

Can anyone explain this apparent discrepancy between the Greek and Hebrew versions of Isaiah 30:20-21?

Isaiah 30:21, as translated from the Masoretic text (Hebrew), has been used times to say that God can show us where we need to go. וְאָזְנֶ֙יךָ֙ תִּשְׁמַ֣עְנָה דָבָ֔ר מֵֽאַחֲרֶ֖יךָ לֵאמֹ֑ר זֶ֤ה ...
5
votes
3answers
304 views

Col. 1:27: What is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?

In Col. 1:24-29, it is written, 24 Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is ...
5
votes
2answers
2k views

John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, ...
5
votes
0answers
64 views

Septuagintal Greek in the Lukan Infancy Narratives

I've been reading a number of literary/narrative studies on Luke lately and nearly all mention that after the introduction, Luke adopts a style of Greek reminiscent of the Septuagint in his telling of ...
5
votes
0answers
36 views

What does the Greek for “be reconciled” mean in 2 Corinthians 5:20? [duplicate]

The Greek word for reconciled in 2 Cor 5:20 is καταλλάγητε and parsed an Aorist Passive Imperative - so why do most translations translate this as "be reconciled" giving the reader idea that we need ...
5
votes
0answers
377 views

What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word? [closed]

In Galatians 5:20, among the deeds of the flesh, Paul lists "pharmakeia," which, as i understand, is commonly translated as sorcery or witchcraft, referring to the use or administering of drugs or ...
5
votes
1answer
93 views

Does gēs in Matthew 24:30 refer to all the earth, or a particular location?

Matthew 24:30 (ESV), a part of the Olivet Discourse, reads: Then will appear in heaven the sign of the Son of Man, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man ...
5
votes
1answer
323 views

What does “belly” mean in Philippians 3:19?

Many translations of the Bible use the word "belly" in Philippians 3:19: Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set on earthly things. (ESV) ...
5
votes
2answers
586 views

What is Paul “giving his body over” to in 1 Corinthians 13:3?

1 Corinthians 13:3 reads as follows in King James Bible: And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. ...
5
votes
2answers
148 views

Heb. 12:1 - How should μαρτύρων be understood?

In Heb. 12:1, it is written, Τοιγαροῦν καὶ ἡμεῖς τοσοῦτον ἔχοντες περικείμενον ἡμῖν νέφος μαρτύρων ὄγκον ἀποθέμενοι πάντα καὶ τὴν εὐπερίστατον ἁμαρτίαν δι᾽ ὑπομονῆς τρέχωμεν τὸν προκείμενον ἡμῖν ...
4
votes
3answers
1k views

Does the phrase “born of water and the Spirit” refer to one, or two births?

In John 3:5, Jesus says that we must be "born of water and the Spirit". Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of ...
4
votes
4answers
650 views

Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
4
votes
2answers
528 views

How to interpret John 2:10

King James Bible: And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now. ...
4
votes
1answer
167 views

Does Mark 1:32 indicate two separate time periods?

The NET Bible reads: When it was evening, after sunset, they brought to him all who were sick and demon-possessed.—Mark 1:32 (NET) Two time references are present: "When it was evening" ...
4
votes
1answer
894 views

Translation of κοπιῶντες in Matthew 11:28

The word κοπιῶντες in Matt. 11:28 is translated differently in the NASB and the ESV: NASB: “Come to Me, all who are weary and heavy-laden, and I will give you rest. ESV: Come to me, all who ...
4
votes
1answer
2k views

Why is there numerical ambiguity in Matthew 18:21-22?

Matthew 18:21-22 (NIV) 21 Then Peter came to Jesus and asked, “Lord, how many times shall I forgive my brother or sister who sins against me? Up to seven times?” 22 Jesus ...
4
votes
1answer
92 views

Where was the dinner in John 12?

On this question someone posted a link to an article arguing that Lazaraus is the beloved disciple. One of the arguments he makes is that his theory cleanly reconciles the account of a dinner in John ...
4
votes
4answers
105 views

Define “being” in regards to Acts 17:28

Acts 17:22-28, NRSV: Then Paul stood in front of the Areopagus and said, "Athenians, I see how extremely religious you are in every way. For as I went through the city and looked carefully at the ...
4
votes
1answer
87 views

Blood of God reference to Christ's deity (Act:20:28)

In Acts 20 verses 18-25, Paul addressed the Ephesian elders with a heart felt message. At verse 28 Paul seems to indicate that it was Yahweh's blood, which would specify Christ's shed blood, that ...
4
votes
1answer
69 views

Matt. 9:6: Translation of ἐγερθεὶς

The Greek text according to the: Textus Receptus ἵνα δὲ εἰδῆτε ὅτι ἐξουσίαν ἔχει ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἀφιέναι ἁμαρτίας τότε λέγει τῷ παραλυτικῷ Ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε ...
4
votes
1answer
53 views

In 1 Cor. 10:27, is the apostle Paul alluding to Exo. 34:15 concerning an idolatrous feast to a heathen god?

In 1 Cor. 10:27, it is written, 27 If any of them that believe not bid you to a feast, and ye be disposed to go; whatsoever is set before you, eat, asking no question for conscience sake. (KJV, ...
4
votes
1answer
75 views

Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω?

Matthew (for one example) uses two different words for eating, and I'm trying to figure out if there's any difference in meaning. In Matthew 12:1, he uses ἐσθίω: ...and His disciples were hungry, ...
4
votes
1answer
58 views

Luke 2:22 - Why does the KJV translate τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν as “her purification”?

In Luke 2:22, it is written, And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; (KJV) The Textus ...
4
votes
1answer
130 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
4
votes
1answer
136 views

The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
4
votes
2answers
95 views

After He had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever (Hebrews 10:12)

Hebrews 10:11-12 (KJV) 11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: 12 But this man, after he had offered one ...
4
votes
1answer
129 views

Explanation of the Textual Variant in Mark 14:65

The Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) has: Καὶ ἤρξαντό τινες ἐμπτύειν αὐτῷ καὶ περικαλύπτειν τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ καὶ κολαφίζειν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγειν αὐτῷ Προφήτευσον καὶ οἱ ὑπηρέται ῥαπίσμασιν αὐτὸν ...
4
votes
1answer
408 views

Is Peter's use of Tartarus adoptive of Hellenistic language or ideas?

We see here in 2 Peter 2:4 reference to what in most English translations is "hell", but in the Greek is Tartarus (as usually the footnotes note): For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, ...
4
votes
2answers
990 views

What is the significance of the verb בנה in Genesis 2:22?

And Yahveh God built a woman with the rib that he took from the man, and He brought her to the man. וַיִּבֶן יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהִים אֶֽת־הַצֵּלָע אֲשֶׁר־לָקַח מִן־הָאָדָם לְאִשָּׁה וַיְבִאֶהָ ...
4
votes
1answer
64 views

Is there precedent (perhaps in Jewish tradition) for the usage of “Rabboni,” which is solely found consistently in John 10:26?

John 10:26 New International Version Jesus said to her, "Mary." She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, "Rabboni!" (which means "Teacher"). New Living Translation "Mary!" Jesus ...
4
votes
1answer
158 views

What is the correct translation and meaning of Matt. 11:19?

Matt. 11:19 says,(KJV) " The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her ...
4
votes
1answer
137 views

Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
4
votes
1answer
150 views

Heb. 2:16 — Is the translation of the KJV accurate?

The King James Version (1611) seems to take some liberty in its translation of Heb. 2:16: Notice how the font of "the nature of" (as well as "him") is different from the rest of the verse, ...
4
votes
1answer
204 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
4
votes
1answer
129 views

Question about translation of Romans 4:9

In church this morning, I stumbled across Romans 4:9 in my bilingual English/Spanish NIV/NVI Bible, and was puzzled by the Spanish translation of this verse.1 (Emphasis added for sake of comparison) ...
4
votes
2answers
68 views

Is John 12:41 talking about Jesus' glory or YHWH's?

Does John 12:41 say that Isaiah saw YHWH's glory or Jesus' glory? Which option is more supported by the underlying Greek text and the context of the passage? "Isaiah said these things because he ...
4
votes
2answers
57 views

The correct translation of Isaiah 24:23

In Isaiah 24:23 we have וְחָֽפְרָה הַלְּבָנָה וּבוֹשָׁ֖ה הַֽחַמָּ֑ה The moon shall blush and the sun ashamed where levanah = moon and chammah = sun. But the Septuagint gives καὶ τακήσεται ...
4
votes
1answer
74 views

In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase τὸ χρίσμα?

In 1 John 2:27, it is written, But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is ...
4
votes
1answer
257 views

Who are “the sons of disobedience” in Colossians 3:6?

If this variant represents the original text, then who are "the sons of disobedience" (τοὺς υἱοὺς τῆς ἀπειθείας, tous huious tēs apeitheias) in Colossians 3:6? NA28: δι᾿ ἃ ἔρχεται ἡ ὀργὴ τοῦ ...