Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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What is the difference between en/eis for Pauline “Faith in Christ” phrases?

Paul has several different phrases which all translate "Faith in Christ". This question pertains to the difference in meaning for faith in Christ where the English word "in" has a direct Greek word, ...
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What does the phrase 'ἐν Χριστῷ' in the Pauline Corpus mean?

Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old has passed away; behold, the new has come. 2 Corinthians 5:17 (ESV) For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be ...
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Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω?

Matthew (for one example) uses two different words for eating, and I'm trying to figure out if there's any difference in meaning. In Matthew 12:1, he uses ἐσθίω: ...and His disciples were hungry, ...
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Translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Cor. 5:21 - What did God make Jesus?

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways: τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ If the translation of ...
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Matt. 5:28: αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς as the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

The Textus Receptus (1550, Estienne) has the pronoun αὐτῆς as the object of the infinitive τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι, while the NA28 has αὐτὴν. Grammatically, which is the preferred reading? Which manuscripts ...
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What sort of phrasing is “the many” in Romans 5?

Most English translations have something in Romans that is an interesting turn of phrase—at least to my ears it instinctively makes sense but at the same time it in more at home in a carefully worded ...
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What is the best understanding of 'sober' (nephomen) in 1 Th 5:6 and 1 Th 5:8

Someone has posed to me that 'sober' in 1 Th 5:6-8 is nephomen, root nepho, which they say means to be without ANY alcohol. They are using this verse to base their understanding that any alcohol is ...
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Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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Terminology of “goodness” in Romans 7

There are two different words translated "good" or "right" in Romans 7: ἀγαθός and καλός. I'm trying to determine whether there is any distinction intended. I realize that the "basic" sense (or at ...
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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4?

In Hebrews it talks about certain apostates that can’t be renewed to repentance because they have undergone certain things, which they have then rejected, signifying something terribly wrong and ...
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Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not "...
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Is the Greek of “you” in Mathew 18 singular or plural and what does this say about who is granted authority?

I don't know very much Greek at all, but I'm very curious about the translation of the word "you" in Matthews gospel. In Matthew 16:19 he seems to be speaking directly to Peter when using the word "...
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Is there precedent (perhaps in Jewish tradition) for the usage of “Rabboni,” which is solely found consistently in John 10:26?

John 10:26 New International Version Jesus said to her, "Mary." She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, "Rabboni!" (which means "Teacher"). New Living Translation "Mary!" Jesus ...
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Matt 16:18 gates of hades will not “withstand” or “overcome” it - which one?

Basically most translations say: "gates of Hades will not overpower [the church]", one translation (Aramaic Bible in Plain English) says "gates of Sheol will not withstand it". My understanding of ...
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John 6:45 - What is the meaning of «διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ»?

In John 6:45, it is written, ἔστιν γεγραμμένον ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Καὶ ἔσονται πάντες διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ πᾶς οὖν ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς με TR, 1550 The Lord Jesus Christ ...
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What does the Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής mean in Acts 14:15?

The Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής is a compound word. It came from two words: ὅμοιος (like/similar)and πάσχω (feelings/strong emotion). Why, then, the NASB translate it as 'of same nature' and why, then, the ...
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John 1:4, John 8:12 - Light of life or light of *a* life?

It feels a little strained but given the context I find "a life" makes more sense than "life" as I indicate in the brackets below. (ESV) In him was [associated with him was a] life, and the life ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word “ask” as used in James 1:5?

What is the meaning of the Greek word "ask" as used in James 1:5? The verse reads (NA28 | ESV): Εἰ δέ τις ὑμῶν λείπεται σοφίας, αἰτείτω παρὰ τοῦ διδόντος θεοῦ πᾶσιν ἁπλῶς καὶ μὴ ὀνειδίζοντος, καὶ ...
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Is κεχαριτωμένη synonymous with πλήρης χάριτος?

Is κεχαριτωμένη synonymous with πλήρης χάριτος? Why did Jerome translate the Greek word κεχαριτωμένη into Latin as gratia plena (full of grace) in Luke 1:28? καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν Χαῖρε, ...
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Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
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ἱλαστήριον outside the New Testament and Jewish/Christian Theology [duplicate]

Are you aware of the word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion; propitiation) appearing anywhere outside the New Testament specifically among Classical or Pagan writers? If so, do any of these non-Jewish/Christian ...
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How does ὁ ἐρχόμενος relate to the Father? How is the father “coming”? (Ἀποκάλυψις [Revelation] 1,4)

Ἀποκάλυψις 1,4α Ἰωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν τῇ Ἀσίᾳ · χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος ... From context, this is a reference to the Father (1,4β refers to the Holy ...
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In Luke 6-7, What is the Difference Between the Three Greek Words for “Forgive”?

Question In Luke 6-7, What is the Difference Between the Three Greek Words for "Forgive"? How should these differences impact the interpretation of the text? Is it simply that different terms ...
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What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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What does the Greek word μεριμνᾶτε mean in Philippians 4:6?

The ESV translation of Philippians 4:6 reads: Do not be anxious about anything, but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known to God. If the ...
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Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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What does “justify” (δικαιόω) mean in James 2:24, Romans 3:28?

James 2:24 says: You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. Romans 3:28 says: For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. What are ...
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Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
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What does ἐκ μέρους mean in 1 Corinthians 13:9-10?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10, Paul writes: ἐκ μέρους γὰρ γινώσκομεν καὶ ἐκ μέρους προφητεύομεν· ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ τὸ τέλειον, τὸ ἐκ μέρους καταργηθήσεται. (Westcott and Hort) What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean ...
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Is “puppies” a justifiable translation of κυναρίοις?

Mark 7 contains an odd little story: And from there he arose and went away to the region of Tyre and Sidon. And he entered a house and did not want anyone to know, yet he could not be hidden. But ...
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2 Thessalonians 2:4 - What is the meaning of «πάντα λεγόμενον θεὸν»?

In 2 Thessalonians 2:4, it is written, Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that ...
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Matthew 3:4 - does ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὐτοῦ epexegetically modify τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου?

The Greek text of Matt. 3:4: Αὐτὸς δὲ ὁ Ἰωάννης εἶχεν τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου, καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὑτοῦ ἡ δὲ τροφὴ αὐτοῦ ἦν ἀκρίδες, καὶ μέλι ἄγριον TR, 1550 Is it ...
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In Hebrews 1:9 is it “above your companions” or “rather than your companions”?

Does the ISV have it right? All of the other translations I see have "above". Heb 1:8 ISV But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the scepter of your kingdom is ...
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Ephesians 1:10 - Who or what does «τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς» refer to?

In Ephesians 1:10, it is written, εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (TR, 1550) According to my ...
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To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
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Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?

In 1 Cor 14:15, does Paul say he will pray with both spirit and understanding (at the same time), or that he will pray with each (at different times)? Specifically, when Paul says he will "pray with ...
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John 3:16 - how is it “His Son”?

Standard caveat: I'm new to NT Greek, so please be gentle if my question is silly, basic or obvious. John 3:16 in the UBS5 is: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ...
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2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
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How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?

The word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) is often translated in Romans 3:25 as "propitiation," "atonement," or "sacrifice [of atonement]" in Western conservative biblical translations. In Hebrews 9:5 it is ...
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John 3:16: What does the aorist inflection of ἀγαπῶ indicate?

In John 3:16, it is written, For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (KJV) Οὕτως γὰρ ...
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In Ephesians 2:2, to what or whom does “the authority of the air” refer?

In Eph. 2:2, it is written, in which once ye did walk according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of ...
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In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when ...
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By the phrase “οὔτε ἐν τῷ μέλλοντι”, was Jesus saying that there are sins that could be forgiven after death?

Reading Matthew 12:32 at face value, it seems that it's telling us that forgiveness can be obtained after death but Jesus won't contradict himself in Luke 16:20-25 (I mean, the rich man could easily ...
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What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?

The following texts contain the phrases "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ” and "ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί": John 10:38 (ESV) 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and ...
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

If μονογενὴς Θεὸς is regarded as the correct reading, then, what would it mean? θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. John 1:18 (...
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?

In several places in Acts, Peter, James, and Paul (and perhaps others) address groups of people by saying "men and brethren" – perhaps in the same way that we would use "ladies and gentlemen" or "...
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What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...