Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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Distinction between παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον and ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον

A few times, Jesus states παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 16:27-28). But, once he states, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον (John 8:42). How should each phrase be translated into English? What does each phrase mean ...
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Is “for ever and ever” eternal?

Revelation 14:11: And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever I was told that "for ever and ever" in Greek like in the verse above or elsewhere in the N.T. may not at all mean ...
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Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources? [closed]

Source texts are available with software There are numerous Biblical source texts available (free, in "public domain") for download into Bible software type programs. Where else are they available? ...
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“Slave” vs. “servant” in Colossians

The translators of the NET note for Colossians 1:7 and 4:12, The Greek word translated “fellow slave” is σύνδουλος (sundoulo"); the σύν- prefix here denotes association. Though δοῦλος is normally ...
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What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?

I have a question about the context of Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56 as they relate to the buying and preparing of the burial spices for Jesus of Nazareth. Mark 16:1 (ESV) states: When the Sabbath was ...
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Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?

In 1 Thess 4:10-12 (NIV) we read: 10 And in fact, you do love all of God’s family throughout Macedonia. Yet we urge you, brothers and sisters, to do so more and more, 11 and to make it your ...
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Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?

In the King James Version of Rev. 5:10, we find the following phrase, And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth. If we examine the immediate context, the ...
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Was Greek Mark's second language?

I've noted that Jesus probably spoke little Greek and did not have formal training. Similarly, Peter and John were likely not trained in Greek (see Acts 4:13). Bart Ehrman points out: [The four ...
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How to interpret John 2:10

King James Bible: And saith unto him, Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now. ...
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John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]

In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
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Translation of κοπιῶντες in Matthew 11:28

The word κοπιῶντες in Matt. 11:28 is translated differently in the NASB and the ESV: NASB: “Come to Me, all who are weary and heavy-laden, and I will give you rest. ESV: Come to me, all who ...
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What is the Greek word for gods?

In 1 Corinthians 8:5, Paul says or though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) What is the difference in Greek between God and ...
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What's the root definition of the word “judge” in Matthew 7:1?

What is the root definition of the word judge in the below scripture? Does it correlate to the currently accepted definition of judge? Judge not, that ye be not judged. (Matthew 7:1 KJV) ...
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889 views

What happens to a Paidagogos (in Gal. 3.24) when the son grows up?

Depending on your translation, the law has been either a guardian, a nursemaid, or a teacher that is supposed to bring us to Christ. That nanny's role is to guide and protect the child, as well as ...
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Matthew 10:28 - Is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse?

In Matthew 10:28 is there anything linguistic to support eternal torment in this verse? The natural interpretation obviously is that this teaches annihilationism since he uses the word "destroy" not ...
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335 views

Who is judging whom in Revelation 20:4?

The following verse towards the end of Revalation has an interesting turn of phrase: Revelation 20:4 (ESV) (emphasis mine) 4  Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom the ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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Who was “speaking in David”?

My question pertains to Hebrews 4:7, which reads as follows: He again fixes a certain day, “Today,” saying [in] David after so long a time just as has been said before, “Today if you hear His ...
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Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?

This verse appears to be referring to the Tanakh, which of course contains the Torah ("Teaching", which contains the Law of Moses), Nevi'im ("Prophets") and Ketuvim ("Writings" or "Hagiographa"), but ...
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Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
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In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?

Mar 9:43-4: And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched. Where ...
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What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
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Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below

John 1:12 "to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God." John 20:31 "but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
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What is the referent for “brother” in 1 John 4:20-21?

1 John 4:20-21 20 If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? 21 And this ...
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Connotation of πλεονεξία in Colossians 3:5

Looking at Colossians 3:5 in Greek: Νεκρώσατε οὖν τὰ μέλη τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, πορνείαν ἀκαθαρσίαν πάθος ἐπιθυμίαν κακήν, καὶ τὴν πλεονεξίαν, ἥτις ἐστὶν εἰδωλολατρία. Πλεονεξία, often translated ...
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Translation of ἀετοί in Matthew 24:28

I know that another question focuses on the meaning of the phrase in which this word is used, but I am only interested in the translation of the word itself (most answers to that question take the ...
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Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?

Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν What is the ...
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Why does the KJV have “edifying” in its translation of 1 Tim. 1:4?

The King James Version translates 1 Tim. 1:4 as, Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. Why did the ...
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What do σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν refer to in 1 Corinthians 15:44?

It seems most translations have translate the terms σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν in 1 Corinthians 15:44 as "natural body" and "spiritual body." But there are several translations that disagree. ...
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Does the greek word απαυγασμα indicate the person of Christ, or just his qualities?

απαυγασμα is radiance: The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he ...
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How should the phrase ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ in John 16:8 be translated?

The 1984 NIV of John 16:7b-11 reads (emphasis mine): Unless I go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. When he comes, he will convict the world of ...
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How should ἐκκλησίαις be translated in 1 Corinthians 14:34?

Though it has a couple different meanings, most often ἐκκλησία is translated as "church" in the NT. I'm wondering, though, whether its use in 1 Corinthians 14:34 might be distinguished from its use in ...
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Being saved or saved in 1 Cor 15:2?

What is the best and most plausible English translation for this sentence in 1 Cor 15:2 from a linguistic and grammatical stand point (not theological)? (a) 'being saved' as a process in progress? ...
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John 20:17: τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν

In John 20:17, instead of saying τὸν πατέρα ἡμῶν καὶ θεόν ἡμῶν, that is, "our Father and our God," Jesus instead says, τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν, that is, "my Father ...
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In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
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Translation of Romans 5:12

There is already a question about a possible contradiction between Romans 5:12 and 5:15, but this question focuses exclusively on the translation of 5:12 (which may inadvertently also answer the other ...
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Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?

Acts 1:2: ἄχρι ἡς ἡμέρας ἐντειλάμενος τοῖς ἀποστόλοις διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου οὓς ἐξελέξατο ἀνελήφθη Does διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify ἐντειλάμενος or ἐξελέξατο? What are the arguments in favor of ...
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What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? [closed]

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
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Jesus and the cross [closed]

I read Dr. Samuelsson’s writings that "Jesus did not die on cross". And here is what Dr. Craig says about that: Similarly, Dr. Samuelsson’s contention is that the Greek terminology used in the ...
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What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text?
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Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX?
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686 views

How Does the word for “seven” compare with the word for “Sabbath” in Scripture?

Is there a connection linguistically between the word for "Seven" and for "Sabbath" in the Biblical languages, Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek? If so, could someone explain it to me. This is related to the ...
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James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
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Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
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1 Timothy 6:10: “For the love of money is the root of all [kinds of?] evil”

There is some debate as to the accuracy of various English translations of this verse. 1 Timothy 6:10 (Textus Receptus) ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία ἡς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ...
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...