Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

learn more… | top users | synonyms

3
votes
4answers
122 views

Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
3
votes
1answer
66 views

Explanation of the Textual Variant in Mark 14:65

The Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) has: Καὶ ἤρξαντό τινες ἐμπτύειν αὐτῷ καὶ περικαλύπτειν τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ καὶ κολαφίζειν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγειν αὐτῷ Προφήτευσον καὶ οἱ ὑπηρέται ῥαπίσμασιν αὐτὸν ...
3
votes
2answers
99 views

In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
3
votes
2answers
185 views

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
3
votes
1answer
76 views

What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?

Mar 9:43-4: And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched. Where ...
3
votes
1answer
73 views

What is Jesus saying in Mark 14:42?

Here is the passage, for context: And again He came and found them sleeping, for their eyes were very heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him. And He came the third time, and said to them, ...
3
votes
2answers
151 views

Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below

John 1:12 "to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God." John 20:31 "but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
3
votes
3answers
936 views

What is the referent for “brother” in 1 John 4:20-21?

1 John 4:20-21 20 If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? 21 And this ...
3
votes
2answers
157 views

Connotation of πλεονεξία in Colossians 3:5

Looking at Colossians 3:5 in Greek: Νεκρώσατε οὖν τὰ μέλη τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, πορνείαν ἀκαθαρσίαν πάθος ἐπιθυμίαν κακήν, καὶ τὴν πλεονεξίαν, ἥτις ἐστὶν εἰδωλολατρία. Πλεονεξία, often translated ...
3
votes
1answer
59 views

Translation of ἀετοί in Matthew 24:28

I know that another question focuses on the meaning of the phrase in which this word is used, but I am only interested in the translation of the word itself (most answers to that question take the ...
3
votes
1answer
77 views

Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?

Greek text of Heb. 1:2 according to Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν What is the ...
3
votes
1answer
32 views

Why does the KJV have “edifying” in its translation of 1 Tim. 1:4?

The King James Version translates 1 Tim. 1:4 as, Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. Why did the ...
3
votes
1answer
151 views

What do σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν refer to in 1 Corinthians 15:44?

It seems most translations have translate the terms σῶμα ψυχικόν and σῶμα πνευματικόν in 1 Corinthians 15:44 as "natural body" and "spiritual body." But there are several translations that disagree. ...
3
votes
1answer
132 views

Does the greek word απαυγασμα indicate the person of Christ, or just his qualities?

απαυγασμα is radiance: The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he ...
3
votes
1answer
133 views

How should the phrase ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ in John 16:8 be translated?

The 1984 NIV of John 16:7b-11 reads (emphasis mine): Unless I go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. When he comes, he will convict the world of ...
3
votes
4answers
153 views

How should ἐκκλησίαις be translated in 1 Corinthians 14:34?

Though it has a couple different meanings, most often ἐκκλησία is translated as "church" in the NT. I'm wondering, though, whether its use in 1 Corinthians 14:34 might be distinguished from its use in ...
3
votes
2answers
471 views

Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources? [closed]

Source texts are available with software There are numerous Biblical source texts available (free, in "public domain") for download into Bible software type programs. Where else are they available? ...
3
votes
1answer
155 views

In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated as 'presume' or 'despise'?

Question: In Romans 2:4, is καταφρονέω more properly translated into English as 'presume' or 'despise'? Details: This is a key point that Paul is making, but since 'presume' and 'despise' are two ...
3
votes
2answers
917 views

What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? [closed]

In Hebrew the word for wind/breath/spirit is ruach, which is feminine (like all nouns for body parts). However, some theologians use that as an argument for calling the Holy Spirit "she". Pneuma in ...
2
votes
4answers
277 views

Jesus and the cross [closed]

I read Dr. Samuelsson’s writings that "Jesus did not die on cross". And here is what Dr. Craig says about that: Similarly, Dr. Samuelsson’s contention is that the Greek terminology used in the ...
2
votes
5answers
3k views

What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text?
2
votes
2answers
555 views

How Does the word for “seven” compare with the word for “Sabbath” in Scripture?

Is there a connection linguistically between the word for "Seven" and for "Sabbath" in the Biblical languages, Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek? If so, could someone explain it to me. This is related to the ...
2
votes
3answers
159 views

Was Greek Mark's second language?

I've noted that Jesus probably spoke little Greek and did not have formal training. Similarly, Peter and John were likely not trained in Greek (see Acts 4:13). Bart Ehrman points out: [The four ...
2
votes
2answers
1k views

Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)

What does Paul mean by the word στοιχεῖον, and in particular the phrase τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου? Here is a list of occurrences of the word in the New Testament. Feel free to respond concerning the ...
2
votes
2answers
146 views

James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”

James 1:11 contains the phrase "καὶ τὸ ἄνθος αὐτοῦ ἐξέπεσεν," which the ESV correctly literally translates as "[and] its flower falls." The NET takes more interpretive license and renders it "the ...
2
votes
1answer
367 views

1 Timothy 6:10: “For the love of money is the root of all [kinds of?] evil”

There is some debate as to the accuracy of various English translations of this verse. 1 Timothy 6:10 (Textus Receptus) ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία ἡς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ...
2
votes
1answer
75 views

Romans 8:28 translation

Romans 8:28 (NA28) reads: Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν. There is also a textual variant that explicitly makes 'God' the ...
2
votes
1answer
78 views

The Greek word translated as “children” in 1 Tim. 3:4: is it declined in the singular or plural number?

In 1 Tim. 3:4 KJV, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, "...having his children in subjection" (cp. Tit. 1:6). The Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) is as ...
2
votes
1answer
44 views

Is σωτήρ or Σωτήρ proper when refering to Christ?

From the different Greek Bibles and online references I've looked at, different versions of same verse may or may not capitalize the Σ. Does σωτήρ properly refer to Christ and does it matter if its ...
2
votes
1answer
240 views

Why is this same word translated both “they”, “he” and “him” in Luke 10:38?

In the KJV with Strong's, this verse: Now it came to pass, as they went, that he entered into a certain village: and a certain woman named Martha received him into her house. the words I've ...
2
votes
2answers
538 views

Translation of “ἐλπίς”

Ἐλπίς is a theologically important word in the New Testament. It is glossed hope, but I have often heard it emphasized that this does not mean hope in the sense of a positive wish or feeling which is ...
2
votes
1answer
110 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
2
votes
1answer
51 views

Does πολιτείας imply citizenship status with Israel?

ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ (Eph. 2:12 TR) Paul makes a ...
2
votes
1answer
183 views

Could ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38 be 'the past' rather than 'ruler' or similar

All translations seem to render ἀρχαὶ in Romans 8:38-39 as 'ruler' or something similar, for example: ESV: 38For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present ...
2
votes
1answer
59 views

The usage of the word “curse” in Gal 3:13

Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree” (Gal 3:13 ESV) This verse has always intrigued me, ...
2
votes
1answer
86 views

Translation of Luke 1:28 “Greetings, favored one!”

Can someone tell me about the translation of the word κεχαριτωμένη as it appears in the context of Luke 1:28 (where Gabriel greets Mary)? ...
2
votes
2answers
57 views

John 20:17: τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν

In John 20:17, instead of saying τὸν πατέρα ἡμῶν καὶ θεόν ἡμῶν, that is, "our Father and our God," Jesus instead says, τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν, that is, "my Father ...
1
vote
3answers
407 views

What is the difference in meaning between Χριστός Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστός?

In the New Testament, sometimes the authors use Χριστός Ἰησοῦς ("Christ Jesus"), where Χριστός precedes Ἰησοῦς, yet other times they use Ἰησοῦς Χριστός ("Jesus Christ"). What is the difference in ...
1
vote
2answers
106 views

What pronoun refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:26?

In John 14:26, English translations read, "He will teach you all things" or something similar, referring to the Holy Spirit with a masculine singular pronoun. Apparently the Greek word is "ekeinos", ...
1
vote
1answer
183 views

2 Cor 5:20: “be reconciled to God” translation

I heard somewhere that in 2 Corinthians 5:20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech [you] by us: we pray [you] in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God because of ...
1
vote
3answers
13k views

New American Standard Bible vs English Standard Version: Which one's more faithful to the original text? [duplicate]

I've read that both the NASB and ESV versions are "formal, word-for-word translations". Is there any way to determine which is the most accurate version? Bonus consideration: Precise translation ...
1
vote
1answer
118 views

NIV Bible by Biblica different on Luke 1:37

The verse Luke 1:37 is different in my NIV Bible than on the other versions. Check comparison below: King James Version: For with God nothing shall be impossible. International Standard ...
1
vote
1answer
87 views

What is the significance of ἴσα in Phil. 2:6?

In Phil. 2:6, it is written, ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ Wiktionary lists the various declensions of the Greek adjective ἴσος. My question is, how is the word ...
1
vote
1answer
458 views

What does “pantokrator” mean?

Revelation 4:8 refers to God as κύριος, ὁ θεός, ὁ παντοκράτωρ, generally rendered as 'Lord God Almighty.' I'm interested in the last word: ὁ παντοκράτωρ. Would this have connoted omnipotence as the ...
1
vote
1answer
71 views

Why does sending Epaphroditus to the Philippian Christians make Paul less anxious?

Philippians 2:28 (NA28) reads: σπουδαιοτέρως οὖν ἔπεμψα αὐτόν, ἵνα ἰδόντες αὐτὸν πάλιν χαρῆτε κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ. I am specifically interested in the meaning of κἀγὼ ἀλυπότερος ὦ, which simply ...
1
vote
1answer
90 views

What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?

I know that μονογενὴς Θεὸς is the correct text in John 1:18b but my question is that what does it mean in Christian Theology? How do we suppose to understand such divine title of God's Son? The NASB ...
1
vote
2answers
340 views

What is the meaning of “his own vessel” and “defraud his brother” in 1 Thess 4:3-8?

1 Thes 4:3-8 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and ...
1
vote
0answers
25 views

Meaning of Matthew 16:28 [duplicate]

None the disciples who heard Jesus speak the words of Mat 16:28 is alive today. So what did Jesus really mean? What is it that some of them would see in their lifetime? Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell ...
0
votes
1answer
150 views

What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?

I have been doing a detailed study of 1 Cor 11:4, and I need to know if the two Greek words πᾶς ἀνὴρ should have been translated as Men, everyone -or- Every man I do realize that most bibles ...
0
votes
2answers
255 views

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

When I look into the Hebrew text I see at least 3 different spellings of what we translate into English as day or rest or more commonly "Sabbath". So how many different words in Greek are used to ...