Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? [closed]

Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? In my research online, I've been finding that this issue is hotly debated between Seventh Day ...
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Luke 22:31-32 - What is the significance of ὑμᾶς?

In Luke 22:31-32, it is written, English Translation 31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (ὑμᾶς), that he may sift you as wheat: 32 But I have prayed for ...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?

In several places in Acts, Peter, James, and Paul (and perhaps others) address groups of people by saying "men and brethren" – perhaps in the same way that we would use "ladies and gentlemen" or "...
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Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?

In John 9:25, the Greek text according to Robert Estienne's 1550 Textus Receptus is: ἀπεκρίθη οὖν ἐκεῖνος καὶ εἶπεν, Εἰ ἁμαρτωλός ἐστιν οὐκ οἶδα ἓν οἶδα ὅτι τυφλὸς ὢν ἄρτι βλέπω The King James ...
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Translation of “οἰκονομίαν”

Οἰκονομία is often glossed stewardship; the UBS 4th edition Greek New Testament renders it management of a household in the glossary. However, I find it is often difficult to translate in a sentence. ...
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How to interpret neuter adjective “one” in John 10:30?

My understanding is an adjective in the predicate function should generally match the subject in case, number, and gender. In John 10:30 that means the adjective “one” should be masculine (εἷς), but ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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Acts 20:28 variants, what are the six variants?

I have been doing a lot of reading of books from the 1700s and 1800s on google books, and I came across a claim that there are 6 different variants in Acts 20:28. (Sorry, don't remember exactly where ...
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376 views

Does the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 have influence on the use of εὐσέβεια in the NT?

Is there any New Testament text wherin an influence of this LXX expanded translation is of interpretive importance in the NT (esp. with regard to εὐσέβεια)? Edit (question clarification): I find this ...
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Women and chief men stirred up - Acts 13:50

Acts 13:50 says in part that the Jews "stirred up the devout and prominent women AND the chief men of the city" raising up persecution against Paul and Barnabus, causing them to be expelled from the ...
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What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
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229 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
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227 views

What does Exodus 26:27 say?

I was reading through Exodus the other day and thought that the translation of Exodus 26:26-27 was odd. OSB: "You shall make bars of incorruptible wood: five for the posts on one side of the ...
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Are the four profitable areas in 2 Tim 3:16 covering doctrine and practice?

Looking at 2 Tim 3:16 16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, (ESV) I was checking some ...
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How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?”

Luke 2:52 (ESV) states that "Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man." The word "favor" in this passage is translated from the Greek word "charis" (Strong's G5485), ...
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Does Matthew 1:25 provide evidence for or against the perpetual virginity of Mary?

Matthew 1:25, regarding Joseph "knowing" Mary, reads: but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus. (ESV) The word "until," in English, typically indicates ...
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key (...
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In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611),...
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655 views

Does the NLT translate Luke 9:7 accurately?

In Luke 9:1-6, Jesus sends the 12 apostles out to tell the Good News and to do miracles, specifically healing the sick. In Luke 9:10, the apostles come back and tell Jesus about what they had done. In ...
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What is the “worship of angels”?

In Colossians 2:18, Paul warns his readers, "Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize" (NIV emphasis mine). Of course, that it is in the ...
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1 Cor 7:21 Is there any justification to translate this “remain a slave”?

I'm an Englishman and so am used to seeing the verse from 1 Cor 7 translated something like this: 20 Each one should remain in the condition in which he was called. 21Were you a slave when ...
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Rev 3:11 I come quickly vs I come soon

What are the arguments as to whether ἔρχομαι ταχύ (for example in Rev 3:11) should be translated as "I come quickly" or "I come soon", respectively. I understand that both translations are ...
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In the context of 2 Corinthians 7, does soteria (σωτηρία) in verse 10 refer to salvation or sanctification?

2 Corinthians 7:10 For the sorrow that is according to the will of God produces a repentance without regret, leading to salvation, but the sorrow of the world produces death. (NASB) Reading this ...
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Romans 5:1 and peace with God

The UBS4 reading of Romans 5:1 is: Δικαιωθέντες οὖν ἐκ πίστεως εἰρήνην ἔχομεν πρὸς τὸν θεὸν διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (emphasis added) At issue is a textual variation concerning the ...
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Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»

In Romans 14:7, it is written, οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἡμῶν ἑαυτῷ ζῇ καὶ οὐδεὶς ἑαυτῷ ἀποθνῄσκει (TR, 1550) My question concerns the reflexive pronoun ἑαυτῷ which occurs twice in this verse, once preceding ...
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How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?

Matthew 7:7 “Ask, and it will be given you; search, and you will find; knock, and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and everyone who searches finds, and for everyone ...
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What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6

MOUNCE renders it: who, although he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ...
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Evidence from early manuscripts of Revelation 13:18?

I'm hoping to see facsimiles of the earliest manuscripts of Rev 13:18, where the number 600, 60 and 6 is mentioned. There's a myriad of translations, but I'm interested in how the number was written ...
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Does John distinguish between terms for love?

It's fairly common knowledge that there are four Greek words for love, but it's not clear from the Wikipedia article whether certain distinctions persist from Ancient Greek to Koine, namely the ...
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Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17?

I was actually looking up the verse for another question I might ask about rhema (actually rēmatos) "hearing, and hearing by..." but I noticed that though I had memory of it saying "the word of God", ...
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657 views

Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”

I like to frequently cross reference different translations of the Bible (usually Douay-Rheims, KJV, NIV, NASB). I've noticed that the older versions (KJV, Douay Rhiems) of the Revelation 7:14 ...
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Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX?
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What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text?
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What scripture is the author of 1 Tim 5:18 referencing?

1 Timothy 5:17-18 states Elders who provide effective leadership must be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard in speaking and teaching. For the scripture says, ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2:1, which variant is more likely: «μαρτύριον» v. «μυστήριον»?

The Greek text of 1 Cor. 2:1 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Κἀγὼ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἀδελφοί ἦλθον οὐ καθ᾽ ὑπεροχὴν λόγου ἢ σοφίας καταγγέλλων ὑμῖν τὸ μαρτύριον τοῦ θεοῦ TR, 1550 The ...
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What does the phrase 'ἐν Χριστῷ' in the Pauline Corpus mean?

Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old has passed away; behold, the new has come. 2 Corinthians 5:17 (ESV) For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be ...
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Is κεχαριτωμένη synonymous with πλήρης χάριτος?

Is κεχαριτωμένη synonymous with πλήρης χάριτος? Why did Jerome translate the Greek word κεχαριτωμένη into Latin as gratia plena (full of grace) in Luke 1:28? καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν Χαῖρε, ...
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Healing of the Centurion's παῖς (servant, son?) in Matthew 8:5-13

I have heard it said that the Centurion in Matthew 8 was refering to his "παῖς" in the sense of servant or slave, and all translations seem to take it that way. I've heard people go on to say that ...
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Reconciling the Differences in Jesus' Citation of Deu. 6:5 according to the Synoptics

According to the Masoretic text of Deu. 6:5, it is written, וְאָהַבְתָּ אֵת יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהֶיךָ בְּכָל לְבָבְךָ וּבְכָל נַפְשְׁךָ וּבְכָל מְאֹדֶךָ which the Septuagint (according to Rahlf's ...
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What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?

I found only the American Standard Version that translates ειρηκεν in 2 Corinthians 12:9 as an English perfect: And he hath said unto me (εἴρηκέν μοι), My grace is sufficient for thee.. with the ...
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Meaning of ἡ κοινωνία τῆς πίστεώς σου in Philemon 6

What is the meaning of ἡ κοινωνία τῆς πίστεώς σου in Philemon 6? I have seen it rendered fellowship, sharing, communication, et cetera, but I haven't been able to clearly ascertain Paul's meaning&...
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What is a “reinked” manuscript?

So, I'm checking a variant in the CNTTS critical apparatus and look up some info on a couple manuscripts that support a reading. According to CNTTS the manuscript is "a reinked manuscript of the ...
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What is the difference between “righteous” and “just” in the NT? [closed]

I've basically always used these words synonymously. Can someone elaborate on whether there is a difference?
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Matthew 1:20 - word order and translation

The text of Matthew 1:20b in the UBS4 reads: τὸ γὰρ ἐν αὐτῇ γεννηθὲν ἐκ πνεύματός ἐστιν ἁγίου. In the ESV, it is rendered: for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. What is ...
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Acts 22:16 - Is “washing away your sins” linked to baptism or calling on the Lord?

In Acts 22, Paul is recounting his conversion, and uses the phrase Having arisen, be baptised and wash away your sins, calling on His name. ἀναστὰς βάπτισαι καὶ ἀπόλουσαι τὰς ἁμαρτίας σου, ...
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In 1 Timothy 1:5, what is the meaning of «τῆς παραγγελίας»?

The Greek text of 1 Tim. 1:5 according to the Textus Receptus states, Εʹ τὸ δὲ τέλος τῆς παραγγελίας ἐστὶν ἀγάπη ἐκ καθαρᾶς καρδίας καὶ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς καὶ πίστεως ἀνυποκρίτου TR, 1550 Note: ...
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Why is δεδικαίωται translated “freed” in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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Meaning of “Body of Flesh” in Colossians 2:11

In Colossians 2:11, what does Paul mean by τοῦ σώματος τῆς σαρκός? Paul uses σάρξ to refer to the body or the physical far less than John, and it is clear that isn't what he's referring to here: the ...
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How should “ektroma ” be translated in 1 Corinthians 15:8?

Paul delivers his famous account of the death and resurrection of Jesus: For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the ...
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How does the translation of γενόμενον as “made (of)” imply a previous state of existence?

The Pulpit Commentary* says that the word γενόμενον (KJV: made) in the phrase γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός (made of a woman) in Galatians 4:4 implies a previous state of existence, whereas "born" (so NASB, ...