Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

learn more… | top users | synonyms (1)

6
votes
2answers
171 views

Does Matthew 1:25 provide evidence for or against the perpetual virginity of Mary?

Matthew 1:25, regarding Joseph "knowing" Mary, reads: but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus. (ESV) The word "until," in English, typically indicates ...
6
votes
1answer
126 views

What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?

I'm looking over John Frame's treatment of the third commandment in The Doctrine of the Christian Life (page 509), and he makes an interesting statement regarding Paul's angry words against his pro-...
4
votes
2answers
127 views

Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?

Although some manuscripts omit Luke 22:44, it has been used along with Hebrews 2:18 to show that Jesus was afraid. It has been proposed that if Jesus was not afraid, then He is not able to help those ...
5
votes
2answers
94 views

Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3

Why do certain translations add the word 'fine' in 1 Peter 3:3 whilst others do not? Let your adornment not be the external kind, braiding hair and putting on gold jewelry or putting on fine ...
2
votes
4answers
244 views

What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?

John 1:1 reads as follows: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. I'm wondering about the "πρὸς τὸν Θεόν", translated as "with god." But, I'm more asking about the ...
0
votes
0answers
45 views

Χριστοῦ ᾽Ιησοῦ vs. ᾽Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ: Is there a difference? [duplicate]

I'm beginning to memorize some scripture in NT Greek, and I'm starting with Ephesians. I'm in Ephesians 1:1-2, which reads: 1 Παῦλος ἀπόστολος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ διὰ θελήματος θεοῦ τοῖς ἁγίοις τοῖς ...
5
votes
3answers
350 views

What is the meaning of the Greek word “ask” as used in James 1:5?

What is the meaning of the Greek word "ask" as used in James 1:5? The verse reads (NA28 | ESV): Εἰ δέ τις ὑμῶν λείπεται σοφίας, αἰτείτω παρὰ τοῦ διδόντος θεοῦ πᾶσιν ἁπλῶς καὶ μὴ ὀνειδίζοντος, καὶ ...
4
votes
1answer
334 views

Who are “the sons of disobedience” in Colossians 3:6?

If this variant represents the original text, then who are "the sons of disobedience" (τοὺς υἱοὺς τῆς ἀπειθείας, tous huious tēs apeitheias) in Colossians 3:6? NA28: δι᾿ ἃ ἔρχεται ἡ ὀργὴ τοῦ ...
4
votes
2answers
150 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
3
votes
1answer
204 views

What does the Greek word ἀπαύγασμα Hebrews 1:3 means [duplicate]

What does the Greek word ἀπαύγασμα (apaugasma) means in Hebrews 1:3? The said Greek word was translated differently in English Versions.Some has "radiance" while others have "reflection." Which ...
3
votes
3answers
126 views

Is 'all-things' literally including any conceivable thing in Rom 8:28?

Paul says: And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. (ESV, Romans 8:28) Does 'all-things' literally include ...
1
vote
1answer
69 views

Does Revelation 10:11 belong in chapter 10 or chapter 11?

Does the original greek language (or other concrete evidence) provide an indication that Revelation 10:11 belongs in chapter 10, or does it it lack such an indication, such that it is ambiguous in the ...
3
votes
1answer
113 views

John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?

In John 15 Jesus uses an example from agriculture to illustrate the relationship between Himself and His disciples: ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ἄμπελος ὑμεῖς τὰ κλήματα ὁ μένων ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ οὗτος φέρει ...
5
votes
1answer
65 views

Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?

As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!). Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
9
votes
2answers
1k views

Does the word Satan ever show up in the New Testament?

Satan is a Hebrew word that means adversary. The New Testament is written in Greek. So I guess not. It seems that they have another word. Diabolos or something that means the devil. Is that devil ...
8
votes
1answer
419 views

Ephesians 3:4 “πρὸς ὃ”

I'm a beginner at NT Greek. I'm studying through Ephesians right now and am working on translating Ephesians 3. I get to verse 4, and I'm struggling to make any sense of how to translate it. I get the ...
4
votes
1answer
145 views

The articular infinitive of John 17:5 rendering

Greeting! I was having a discussion bout John 17:5 and someone pointed out that εἶναι is articular because of the accusative article closest to that word. Someone else then defined the following ...
2
votes
1answer
130 views

Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?

I have read the questions and answers regarding Luke 14:26 and grasp how "hate" is being used. NASB If anyone comes to Me, and does not hate his own father and mother and wife and children and ...
1
vote
0answers
57 views

John 15:16 Exogete of ΕΘΗΚΑ

John 15:16a "You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last" The word used, ΕΘΗΚΑ, can be translated to appointed/ordained. Is this ...
3
votes
2answers
105 views

Greek text of Romans 8:28

Is there a Greek word for 'things', as in Romans 8:28? And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose.
1
vote
0answers
38 views

Is NLT rendering of εἰ μὴ in Gal. 1:19 correct? [duplicate]

In the NLT we see a very explicit rendering of εἰ μὴ as an exception: NLT Gal. 1:19 The only other apostle I met at that time was James, the Lord’s brother. Is this the correct? Does εἰ μὴ in Gal. ...
-2
votes
3answers
220 views

Philippians 2:12 - How should κατεργάζεσθε be translated?

Question In Phil 2:12, How should "Work" be translated, and why is "Out" injected? Setting aside doctrinal presuppositions of faith/work/eternal salvation -- Phil 2:12, NASB - 12 So then, my ...
4
votes
1answer
166 views

What is the correct translation and meaning of Matt. 11:19?

Matt. 11:19 says,(KJV) " The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her ...
6
votes
1answer
87 views

In the context of 2 Corinthians 7, does soteria (σωτηρία) in verse 10 refer to salvation or sanctification?

2 Corinthians 7:10 For the sorrow that is according to the will of God produces a repentance without regret, leading to salvation, but the sorrow of the world produces death. (NASB) Reading this ...
7
votes
0answers
84 views

Rev 20:7-8 Syntax: Gog and Magog in apposition to what?

Revelation of John 20:7-8 SBLGNT 7 Καὶ ὅταν τελεσθῇ τὰ χίλια ἔτη, λυθήσεται ὁ Σατανᾶς ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς αὐτοῦ, 8 καὶ ἐξελεύσεται πλανῆσαι τὰ ἔθνη τὰ ἐν ταῖς τέσσαρσι γωνίαις τῆς γῆς, τὸν Γὼγ ⸀ ...
4
votes
2answers
204 views

In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when ...
2
votes
0answers
59 views

Any attestation of “century” as a meaning of “aion” around the time of Christ?

A professor (of Mathematics) from Greece told me the word αἰών means "century." Of course we know its derivatives (such as αἰώνιος) have a range of meaning in the New Testament and the Septuagint ...
3
votes
1answer
72 views

In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?

NOTE: This is a linguistic/syntax question--and not looking for insight into the doctrinal origins. Question: Regardless if the resulting interpretation is "Traditional" or "Doctrinally Consistent", ...
3
votes
1answer
144 views

Ephesians 1:12 - Translation of “προηλπικότας”

I'm a super-newbie to translating NT Greek, so please be gentle. I'm curious about how to translate "προηλπικότας", found in Ephesians 1:12. A couple of translations: ESV: "were the first to hope" ...
2
votes
0answers
107 views

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual - 3ra Edición) translates: κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20 and κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día ...
1
vote
0answers
12 views

Hebrew-to-Greek translation of birth narrative's “virgin” [duplicate]

I've been going through a list of words and phrases that were possibly mistranslated from Hebrew to Greek, Old Testament to New Testament. The one that stood out to me with great significance is how ...
3
votes
2answers
141 views

Matt 16:18 gates of hades will not “withstand” or “overcome” it - which one?

Basically most translations say: "gates of Hades will not overpower [the church]", one translation (Aramaic Bible in Plain English) says "gates of Sheol will not withstand it". My understanding of ...
0
votes
0answers
30 views

The Greek origin of the New Testament [duplicate]

Today mainstream scholars think the New Testament has been written in Greek. What are their arguments?
11
votes
2answers
276 views

Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton ...
0
votes
2answers
311 views

The correct translation for Luke 6:21 (γελάσετε)

What is the correct way to translate Luke 6:21b and 6:25b? When translating the word (γελάσετε), some translators have used "you will laugh" or "you shall laugh." Blessed are you who hunger now, ...
4
votes
2answers
96 views

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)? 1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ...
3
votes
0answers
38 views

Does 2 Peter 1:1 refer to Jesus as “God”? [duplicate]

2 Peter 1:1 says the following in the NASB: To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ Are "God and Savior" two terms ...
6
votes
2answers
369 views

What does the word “for” mean in the phrase “Christ died for our sins”?

For example, in 1 Cor. 15:3, it is written, For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; (King James Version, ...
6
votes
3answers
348 views

The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
5
votes
2answers
334 views

Healing of the Centurion's παῖς (servant, son?) in Matthew 8:5-13

I have heard it said that the Centurion in Matthew 8 was refering to his "παῖς" in the sense of servant or slave, and all translations seem to take it that way. I've heard people go on to say that ...
5
votes
1answer
126 views

In 1 Corinthians 2:1, which variant is more likely: «μαρτύριον» v. «μυστήριον»?

The Greek text of 1 Cor. 2:1 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Κἀγὼ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἀδελφοί ἦλθον οὐ καθ᾽ ὑπεροχὴν λόγου ἢ σοφίας καταγγέλλων ὑμῖν τὸ μαρτύριον τοῦ θεοῦ TR, 1550 The ...
1
vote
0answers
60 views

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
10
votes
4answers
281 views

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

In studying Acts this week in Turkish, I noticed that there is considerable difference in between translations of Acts 1:3. A quick look through English translations shows a similar range of ...
2
votes
1answer
78 views

Jerome’s translation of «κοινωνία» in the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16

In the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16, it is written, calicem benedictionis cui benedicimus nonne communicatio sanguinis Christi est et panis quem frangimus nonne participatio corporis Domini est Why ...
2
votes
0answers
33 views

Word order in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, ESV) The greek reads as follows (as best I can tell; not sure if this is NA or ...
2
votes
1answer
433 views

The original Greek meaning for 'house' in Acts 2:2

the Holy Spirit filled the whole house where they were sitting What was the original Greek word for 'house'? Could it be referring to the House of the Lord rather than a home dwelling? It seems to ...
1
vote
0answers
63 views

Luke 17:5 - What is the meaning and significance of the phrase πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν?

The Textus Receptus of Luke 17:5 states, Καὶ εἶπον οἱ ἀπόστολοι τῷ κυρίῳ πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν What is the meaning of the phrase «πρόσθες ἡμῖν πίστιν»? Does the phrase it imply that our faith (...
4
votes
0answers
89 views

Is “ordination” in Leviticus 8 the underlying concept of “fulfilled” in Matthew 5:17?

Leviticus 8:22 (ESV) reads: Then he presented the other ram, the ram of ordination, and Aaron and his sons laid their hands on the head of the ram. The Hebrew word here translated "ordination" ...
3
votes
1answer
88 views

Acts 16:16: Meaning of πύθωνος (Textus Receptus) and πύθωνα (NA28)

Acts 16:16 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): Ἐγένετο δὲ πορευομένων ἡμῶν εἰς προσευχὴν παιδίσκην τινὰ ἔχουσαν πνεῦμα πύθωνος ἀπαντῆσαι ἡμῖν ἥτις ἐργασίαν πολλὴν παρεῖχεν τοῖς ...
5
votes
1answer
84 views

Why is the word ἐβαπτίσθη used in Luke 11:38?

When referring to washing up before eating in Luke 11:38 (actually referring to not washing), the greek word used is ἐβαπτίσθη (ebaptisthē: he washed). Yet, in Mark 7:3, which is also referring to ...